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Lagrange inversion theorem

  1. Dec 8, 2011 #1
    I encountered this beautiful theorem and then I tried hard to prove it using ordinary algebraic methods and my understanding of calculus without involving real analysis in it but I didn't succeed. The theorem states that if f is an analytical function at some point x=a then f-1 has the following Taylor series:


    How can I prove this formula?
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 9, 2011 #2
    No one knows?
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