Left invariant vector fields of a lie group

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the conceptual understanding of left-invariant vector fields in the context of Lie groups. It begins with the identification of a basis for vector fields at the identity using the Lie algebra and explores the mathematical procedure to derive left-invariant vector fields from these basis vectors. The participants express confusion about the notation used for derivatives and their relation to tangent spaces, particularly in distinguishing between left and right multiplication. The conversation highlights the significance of left and right translations in establishing isomorphisms between tangent spaces and the corresponding Lie algebra. Ultimately, the discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding these concepts for a deeper grasp of the structure of Lie groups.
fliptomato
Messages
78
Reaction score
0
Comment: My question is more of a conceptual 'why do we do this' rather than a technical 'how do we do this.'

Homework Statement



Given a lie group G parameterized by x_1, ... x_n, give a basis of left-invariant vector fields.

Homework Equations



We have a basis for the vector fields at the identity, namely the Lie algebra: v_1, ..., v_n. For a general group element g, we can write g^{-1}<br /> \frac{\partial g}{\partial x_i}.


The Attempt at a Solution



Apparently the procedure is to write v_i = A^{ij}g^{-1}<br /> \frac{\partial g}{\partial x_j}, where the A^{ij} are just coefficients. Then we can somewhat magically read off the left invariant vector fields w_i via:

w_i = A^{ij}\frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}

Where I have assumed a sum over repeated indices (though haven't been careful with upper or lower indices).

Why is this the correct procedure? I'm especially concerned about this thing \frac{\partial g}{\partial x_j}... is it an element of the tangent space or is it dual to the tangent space?

Thanks for any thoughts,
Flip
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Or perhaps a more basic question. For a matrix lie group, the elements of the lie algebra are also matrices. Like any manifold, the tangent space is spanned by the basis vectors \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{ij}}|_{e}. What matrices do each of these basis vectors correspond to?

For a general element of the lie group g, how does \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{ij}}|_{e} differ from \frac{\partial g}{\partial x^{ij}}|_{e}?
 
Presumably,

\frac{\partial g}{\partial x^i}

is supposed to be the partial derivative (in the i-th direction) of the multiplication-by-g automorphism of G. This notation is poor, though, since it doesn't indicate whether that's right-multiplication-by-g or left-multiplication-by-g.


Whatever's being done, it's just working through the definition of left-invariant. If Lg is left-multiplication-by-g, then it has a derivative L_{g*}, and a vector field v is invariant under all such diffeomorphisms iff

<br /> v(gh) = L_{g*}(h)(v(h))<br />

(recall that L_{g*} is a linear map from the tangent space at h to the tangent space at gh) If we set h = e we get

v(g) = L_{g*}(e)(v(e)),

which gives us the value of v at every point g of G.


One thing that makes the lie group interesting is that we can use right translation to give us canonical isomorphisms between all of the tangent spaces, and can thus identify each of them with the corresponding lie algebra. (We can get a different correspondence by using left translation) That seems to be rolled into this derivation too.


-----------------------------------------


For the matrix Lie group embedded in Rmxm, the tangent space at the identity is the set of all matrices I+v, where v is an element of the corresponding matrix Lie algebra. (I is the identity matrix) Of course, to turn this affine space into a vector space, we take I to be the origin.

The tangent space at any particular point g is the set of all matrices of the form g(I+v). (Which is the same as the set of all matrices of the form (I+v)g)
 
Last edited:
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
33
Views
4K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
15
Views
2K