Light shone in a train bouncing off mirrors

  • #101
Hello saw.

Is it not possible to ignore altonhares little scenario and just address the physics. Let me define absolute simultaneity thus. Absolute simultaneity means that two spatially separated events regarded as simultaneous by an observer at rest in an inertial frame will also be regarded as simultaneous by ALL observers at rest in ANY other inertial frames moving relative to the first. In this sense absolute simultaneity does not exist. It does exist in some subsets of these frames e.g. observers at rest in a frame. In the definition of absolute simultaneity the words ANY and ALL are the ones that differentaiate absolute from relative.

Provisos: Simultaneity of events to a single observer means that if the observer is positioned midway between events then the observer would see them at the same time. Here the same time obviously means at the same time at the same place i.e. at the observer so there is no contention here. Allowing for transit times of light the observer can be anywhere in this frame and by calculation infer simultaneity.

The clocks in the relatively moving frames are synchronised in their own frames by the Einstein procedure.

Matheinste
 
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  • #102
Saw said:
Absolute simultaneity of two events is an idea, an intellectual construction, an invention of the mind. Nobody can forbid me to imagine and define that concept as such: an abstract notion, valid for discussion purposes. It means the following: if two events are “absolutely simultaneously”, that entails that they both have “happened” and hence it is logically impossible that one of them is prevented from happening.
Well, an event in 1879 and an event in 1732 both have "happened" from our perspective--would you call them "absolutely simultaneous"?
Saw said:
For example, if a witness from event 1 (located in a frame where that event has happened “earlier”) traveled towards the location of event 2 faster than the speed of light (that is impossible, but even if it were possible), she would not be able to avoid that event 2 happens, because it has already happened and it has not happened in isolation, it has immediately created a myriad of interactions with its surroundings (remember the butterfly effect) that cannot be blurred out, at least in this universe (leaving aside the funny idea of parallel universes). Thus this concept plays a useful role. For example, you don’t follow the threads where people talk about tricky ways to overcome the speed limit, time-travel and kill your dear grandmother before she gives birth to your father. This saves you a lot of time to study relativity.
The problem with this is that if information or people could travel faster than light, then information or people could be sent back in time, arbitrarily far into the past, if relativity is correct. The only way out of this would be to introduce a preferred frame for FTL travel, such that in the preferred frame things could travel FTL but not backwards in time. But of course, any physically preferred frame would invalidate relativity.
 
  • #103
JesseM said:
Well, an event in 1879 and an event in 1732 both have "happened" from our perspective--would you call them "absolutely simultaneous"?

Yes, I was thinking aloud... Maybe this is a better wording:

Two distant events have been “absolutely simultaneous” if an observer who has just watched one of them can do nothing to affect the other (eg: prevent it from happening) even if she reacted instantaneously and disposed of a means to instantaneously affect what happens at distant places, no matter how far away they are. And vice versa, of course.

Anyhow, for sure you catch the idea and could express it better than myself. I assume, as noted, that in practical terms measuring absolute simultaneity may be impossible. My point is only that the idea is thinkable. The fact that a concept is immeasurable doesn’t mean that we have to rule it out of our speech. You know, concepts are like software. You may have the best PC, but if you delete half of your software, it becomes a crippled machine. The same applies to your mind: you may rule out practical possibilities, but not mental tools, unless you wish to limit your thinking capacity.

Einstein was right in warning that if absolute simultaneity is immeasurable, we have to play with relative simultaneity. But if he meant that only the latter exists, he was wrong. None of them exist. They are just abstract concepts, the products of human mind and we can conventionally frame them the way we want, as long as that serves the purpose of comprehending what does exist: the real actors of the universe (matter particles and photons or wave-particles or whatever they are) and their interactions.

Imagine that it were true that lack of absolute simultaneity, as defined above, had practical consequences, under the appropriate circumstances. If so, whoever has ruled out that possibility would refuse to consider it. That would be a mistake, because we don’t really know… We would only know if we believed that there is either a divine decree forbidding it or that there is an unbreakable logic, inherent to the nature of the universe, in the sense that the principle of relativity works flawlessly, under ALL possible circumstances. In that case, we would have to adapt all our measurement instruments and physical/mathematical concepts and formulas, so that they work in view of that paradigm. But are you sure that you have done completely so, without missing any tiny detail...?

As to the rest (FLT), I have to study your posts. I think there was a thread about it…
 
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  • #104
Hello saw.

Quote:-
---Two distant events have been “absolutely simultaneous” if an observer who has just watched one of them can do nothing to affect the other (eg: prevent it from happening) even if she reacted instantaneously and disposed of a means to instantaneously affect what happens at distant places, no matter how far away they are. ----

For "distant events" i am not quite certain as to what you mean and do not wish to assume anything. For timelike or lightlike separated events there is no simultaneity as they can be causally connected and so are in a before/after relationship. For spacelike separated events, which are by their nature not causally connected, there is no real time order (this is getting into philosophy and i am not totally sure that i express myself accurately)and we have to define, "at the same time", or simultaneous, by convention.The usual convention "seems" the most natural and also often simplifies the mathematics of the situation. But however we define it, if we all use the same convention, it is relative. For two relatively moving observers, events that are simultaneous for one of them using one conventional definition, can also be simultaneous for the other using a suitably chosen alternative definition, but this is a case we do not normally need to consider and may only serve to confuse this discussion. But this is still not even on the way to absolute simultaneity. Relative simultaneity is a conseqence of the constancy of light speed between frames.

I suspect you already worked out all these things and this is probably your line of thinking anyway.

Matheinste.
 
  • #105
Saw said:
Two distant events have been “absolutely simultaneous” if an observer who has just watched one of them can do nothing to affect the other (eg: prevent it from happening) even if she reacted instantaneously and disposed of a means to instantaneously affect what happens at distant places, no matter how far away they are. And vice versa, of course.
But here you seem to be begging the question by assuming that "instantaneously affect what happens at distant places" has any well-defined meaning. In SR an effect which traveled instantaneously in one frame would travel FTL but non-instantaneously in others and backwards in time in still others.
Saw said:
Imagine that it were true that lack of absolute simultaneity, as defined above, had practical consequences, under the appropriate circumstances.
Well, that would necessarily mean the laws of physics were not Lorentz-symmetric, and thus relativity was wrong. Of course this is not impossible, but you have to be clear on the logical incompatibility between relativity and any notion of absolute simultaneity with real physical effects.
Saw said:
As to the rest (FLT), I have to study your posts. I think there was a thread about it…
There have been a few, see here or here for example.
 
  • #106
"Simultaneous"

My point here is that observers should never disagree on qualitative, binary descriptions of what happened. To illustrate what I'm talking about here are a few such:

"A hit B"

"A moved faster than B"

"A is longer than B"

"A hit C as B hit D"

as opposed to quantitative, continuous descriptions:

"A is moving at X relative to B"

"A is Y times longer than B"

etc.

I argue that statements of the former kind are general logic statements of the form "X is Y" or "X is not Y" and that an event/entity/etc. cannot be observed to possesses some quality while also possessing the diametric opposite of that quality. If they do this is a basic logical contradiction and indicates a faulty premise on the part of the observer(s).

In general this is upheld, but in the "relativity of simultaneity" it is not. One observer says events AC and BD were not simultaneous, another says they were. This is logically unacceptable. This tells me that there is something special about either the "local frame" E that I described earlier or that there is some other "special" frame.

jefswat said:
Then the following should be true:

My eraser is motionless if there is only one set of distances from every other entity in the universe.

As near as I can tell that is what your definition implies. If that isn't what you imply then give us a clearer definition and an example like mine with the eraser.

You do not misunderstand. If you have a single set of distances from your eraser to every other entity in the universe the eraser is motionless by definition.

Saw said:
No, because your redefinition gives prevalence to the “local” version, regardless the purpose.

I argue that it is illogical for two observers to ascribe diametrically opposed qualities to any observation. They may disagree on quantity/degree, but not on quality. If they disagree on quality they must check the presuppositions of their measurements/observations, at least one is ill-conceived. In all other areas we do not allow diametrically opposed qualitative descriptions. If I conclude that the metal brick is bigger than the cement brick and you conclude the opposite, we do not ascribe it to the relativity of lengths of bricks. We find out what was faulty about our method/assumptions. In this case I measured in the summer and you in the winter, perhaps. In another case I say the train is motionless and you say it isn't. As I've pointed out, the conclusion that X is motionless is impossible. I can only say it's motionless relative to me, and you will agree with this no matter what frame you're in because it is a qualitative, binary statement of logic.

This tells me that, for spatially separated events, there is either something special about the local frame or some other "special" frame. I do not know what it is and there is not an immediate practical result of this argument. As of now it is purely an argument of logic.

Saw said:
But only if althonhare consents to it. You are leading the thread and I would not like to contaminate your debate with a parallel discussion, especially if I only discuss with myself! Althonhare, would you consent? Otherwise I would initiate another thread, some day.

Lay it on us. Maybe someone will learn something by pointing out the author's fallacy or others will learn something by seeing it pointed out. The story may be fun also.

matheinste said:
Let me define absolute simultaneity thus. Absolute simultaneity means that two spatially separated events regarded as simultaneous by an observer at rest in an inertial frame will also be regarded as simultaneous by ALL observers at rest in ANY other inertial frames moving relative to the first. In this sense absolute simultaneity does not exist. It does exist in some subsets of these frames e.g. observers at rest in a frame. In the definition of absolute simultaneity the words ANY and ALL are the ones that differentaiate absolute from relative.

I argue that, although the definition(s) you present seem reasonable, because they lead to a logical contradiction we conclude they are unacceptable.
 
  • #107
Quote:-
---I argue that, although the definition(s) you present seem reasonable, because they lead to a logical contradiction we conclude they are unacceptable. -----

Yes, the definition of absolute simultaneity does lead to logical contradictions in SR. That is exactly the point i was making.

Quote:-
----One observer says events AC and BD were not simultaneous, another says they were. This is logically unacceptable. ----

It is completely logical within SR. In fact it is fundamental. No one has to accept SR but if you do accept the light axiom of SR then you MUST accept the relativity of simultaneity. This is not just an opinion. The relativity of simultaneity follows as a logical consequence of the speed of light being the same in all inertial frames.

Quote:-
----You do not misunderstand. If you have a single set of distances from your eraser to every other entity in the universe the eraser is motionless by definition.----

Every "entity" at any point in time has a single set of distances from any and all other "entities". So by the above definition everything is always at rest. However my concern is with simultaneity. you can philosophise as much as you like but given an a set of axioms such as in SR you cannot argue against a consequence which follows logcally from these axioms. If you do not like the axioms then, fair enough, just say so. That is perfectly acceptable.

Matheinste
 
  • #108
altonhare said:
"Simultaneous"

My point here is that observers should never disagree on qualitative, binary descriptions of what happened. To illustrate what I'm talking about here are a few such:

"A hit B"

"A moved faster than B"

"A is longer than B"

"A hit C as B hit D"
But the last three don't make sense except in the context of a particular reference frame, since different frames can disagree on which of two objects move faster, which of two objects is longer, and whether two spatially separated collisions happened at the same moment.
altonhare said:
I argue that statements of the former kind are general logic statements of the form "X is Y" or "X is not Y" and that an event/entity/etc. cannot be observed to possesses some quality while also possessing the diametric opposite of that quality. If they do this is a basic logical contradiction and indicates a faulty premise on the part of the observer(s).
It's only a logical contradiction if you neglect to include the context of what reference frame you're talking about, which is always necessary for any physical claims which don't concern purely local events in SR. For example, there is nothing contradictory about the claims "X is simultaneous with Y in frame A" and "X is not simultaneous with Y in frame B".
altonhare said:
In general this is upheld, but in the "relativity of simultaneity" it is not. One observer says events AC and BD were not simultaneous, another says they were. This is logically unacceptable.
No, neither observer claims they were or weren't simultaneous in any absolute sense, they both agree the events were simultaneous in one frame and non-simultaneous in another. This is no more logically contradictory than the notion that object A can have a larger x-coordinate than object B in a coordinate system with the origin at one position and the axes oriented at a particular angle but object B can have a larger x-coordinate than object A in a different coordinate system with the origin at a different position and the axes oriented differently (a situation which can be true in Newtonian physics, and even in ordinary algebraic geometry).
altonhare said:
This tells me that there is something special about either the "local frame" E that I described earlier or that there is some other "special" frame.
So now you are back to saying there is such a thing as absolute simultaneity? Why? And if so, do you at least admit that there's no reason to think that the preferred frame needs to be the one where the lightning strikes were simultaneous, since as I said before in post #82:
Even if one believes in some sort of Lorentz ether theory where one frame's measurements are objectively correct and all other frames are distorted by the fact that their rulers are objectively shrunk and their clocks objectively slowed down and objectively out-of-sync, it is still perfectly possible that the observers on the ground were the ones at rest in this preferred frame while the train was moving relative to it, and thus the strikes really did happen at different times in an objective sense.
altonhare said:
You do not misunderstand. If you have a single set of distances from your eraser to every other entity in the universe the eraser is motionless by definition.
So if even a single object in the universe has a changing distance from the eraser, the eraser is not motionless? Does this mean the only way for any object to be motionless is if every single object in the universe is at rest relative to every other object?
altonhare said:
I argue that it is illogical for two observers to ascribe diametrically opposed qualities to any observation.
Why? If the qualities are coordinate-dependent ones, why is it problematic that there could be disagreements on which object has a greater value of the quality depending on which coordinate system is used? Again, even in simple plane geometry different coordinate systems can disagree on which of two points on the plane has a larger x-coordinate. Likewise, in one coordinate system two objects may share the same x-coordinate, while in another coordinate system they may have two different x-coordinates...how is this fundamentally different than the idea that in one frame two events may share the same t-coordinate (i.e. they are simultaneous in that frame) while in another frame the same events may have different t-coordinates (i.e. they are non-simultaneous in that frame)?
 
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  • #109
JesseM said:
So if even a single object in the universe has a changing distance from the eraser, the eraser is not motionless? Does this mean the only way for any object to be motionless is if every single object in the universe is at rest relative to every other object?

You have beaten me to the punch. While there may be nothing logically wrong with altonhare's definition of motion, it has no predictive power, explain's less than SR, and is utterly useless. Based on Quantum Mechanics and the Heisenburg (sp?) uncertianty principle we don't even know where any single particle may be, let alone everyone in the universe. Further more unless altonhare has a very good refidgerator that no one has ever seen before I don't think the word motionless has any interesting meaning within his framework (a pity, I am rather fond of the word). Further more, I challenge altonhare to explain, with his theory, how my eraser appears motionless to me without using relativity or even the word or concept of relativity. It can not be done which leads us back to Einstein and our friend relativity.
 
  • #110
altonhare said:
Lay it on us. Maybe someone will learn something by pointing out the author's fallacy or others will learn something by seeing it pointed out. The story may be fun also.

Hope so. The story is substantially equivalent to Althonhare's, but it has two advantages: (i) the author's interpretation, which is wrong, is based on the "multiple reality” approach that we contest and it clashes with a sound, less “fantastic” understanding of SR and (ii) its display gives occasion to discuss some issues that are not purely conceptual, but might have relevant practical consequences.

It is the well known story introduced by Brian Greene in the Fabric of the Cosmos. I loved the book and very much respect the author, but he seems to be wrong in this point.

Let me explain it with some adaptations:

There is a duel on a train, between duellers that we will call Back and Front, situated at the tail and the tip of the car, respectively. For their duel, they employ laser guns, of identical construction.

There are two referees: Althonhare, on the train, and myself, Saw, on the ground. The signal for the commencement of the duel is given at the precise instant when Althon and myself are lined up. Of course, it is impossible that the two referees occupy the same position in space and so the perception of this alignment would require light traveling some distance from one to the other. But we stipulate that the distance is so small that its consequences are negligible. We all agree that the alignment (which is a single event) is simultaneous in both frames.

In order to give the duellers the signal for shooting, a pile of gunpowder, set midway between them (i.e., where Althon, on the car, and myself, on the ground, are standing at that instant), explodes and thus sends flashes of light in both directions.

Was the duel fair?

Each referee has a different opinion:

* Althon is certain that light from the flare reaches the duelers simultaneously, so he raises the green flag and declares it a fair draw.

[More technically: In the train frame, the light pulses travel equal paths in their respective directions and do it at the same speed. So the two distant events (= arrival of the signals to shoot) are SIMULTANEOUS.)

* According to the author, I wildly squeal foul play, claiming that Back got the light signal from the explosion before Front did. I explain that, because the train was moving forward, Back was heading toward the light while Front was moving away from it. This means that the light did not have to travel quite as far to reach Back, since he moved closer to it; moreover, the light had to travel farther to reach Front, since he moved away from it. Since the speed of light, moving left or right from anyone’s perspective, is constant, I am supposed to claim that it took the light longer to reach Front, since it had to travel farther, rendering the duel unfair.

[Idem: In the ground frame, light towards Back travels a shorter path, since its target is heading towards it, while light towards Front travels a longer path, since its target is escaping away. As both pulses travel at the same speed, the one that hits Back arrives earlier than the one that hits Front. The two distant events are NOT SIMULTANEOUS.]

Who is right? The matter is not trivial, because the judge who has made a mistake will be sanctioned by the competent supervision body and he may not be able to exercise his profession any more.

Fortunately (?), Einstein comes to the rescue of both with a salomonic opinion:

“Einstein’s unexpected answer is that they both are (…) they simply have different perspectives on the same sequence of events. The shocking thing that Einstein revealed is that their different perspectives yield different but equally valid claims of what events happen at the same time. Of course, at everyday speeds like that of the train, the disparity is small – Saw claims that Front got the light less than a trillionth of a second after Back- but were the train moving faster, near light speed, the time difference would be substantial” (literal quotation, I just changed the names).

But I am a prudent referee. I try to do my job properly. I know that the words of the law (you shall raise a green flag if the duel is “fair”) have a practical purpose and I must interpret them in the light of this practical purpose. The duel is “fair” if the two duelers are given equal opportunities of hitting each other, in practical terms. So my opinion that “Back got the signal earlier” is only relevant for the matter to be judged if it gives Back a real advantage (or disadvantage!).

To this effect, I consider the following scenarios:

(a) Back sees the signal earlier and fires earlier as well. Can his laser pulse hit Front before the latter receives the signal?

(b) If not, they have both received the signals and shot their laser pulses. The latter will also take some time to reach their targets. During this time interval, theoretically, any dueler could try the usual trick: fire and stand aside, before being wounded. There is very little time for this deed, especially if we talk about laser guns, but we can imagine the distance arbitrary long for this purpose. Is this time interval longer for Back then for Front or vice versa?

(c) If not, we imagine Back badly wounded, kneeling on the floor of the car, but brave enough to fire a second shot. Can it reach Front before the latter has the opportunity to fire his own second shot…?

You can think of other scenarios if you wish. The more, the better. That is the point of the exercise.

Then I call a group of experts on SR and ask their answers to the practical questions. If the answers, as I expect, are negative (there is no breach of the principle of equal opportunities), then I do not “wildly squeal foul play” as Brian Greene suggests. Instead, I gently and gallantly raise a green flag, in agreement with Althonhare’s opinion. Consequently, I keep my job, anyhow, but at the same time with a clear conscience, because I’ve done a good job. Brian, in turn, keeps being a wonderful scientist but does not promote any more bold philosophical interpretations of SR.
 
  • #111
Can't we stick to the physics. All this stuff is quite unecessary and takes up time. The physics is very simple. I personally don't have the time to play out theatrical scenarios and so will take no more part in discussing them. My time would be better spent enhancing the limited knowledge i already have. Altonhare is incorrect as far as SR is concerned. Almost everyone agrees on that. If we cannot argue the physics sensibly without stories and getting sidetracked then count me out.

Matheinste.
 
  • #112
matheinste said:
Can't we stick to the physics. All this stuff is quite unecessary and takes up time. The physics is very simple.

Mathe, there are two levels at which all this (and if you take the time to study it, you will agree) may be highly relevant to physics in general and to the physics of the case in particular:

(i) To physics: There's a widespread opinion that physics has nothing to do with common sense and logic. "The universe is as it is and full stop", is the motto. In the realm of SR this view is unfortunately even more habitual. I think we do a great favour to SR, which is a beautifully true theory, if we reconcile it with common sense. Not with old common prejudices that were unjustified, as logic has proved, but with common sense truths that have succesfully resisted a most rigorous logical test.

(ii) To the phsyics: It is my humble opinion that, for example, if the duellers had used conventional guns, instead of laser guns, the solution is more complicated. In principle, SR gives the same solution for both cases: laser and conventional guns. But I have some doubts I would like to share. Maybe JesseM and others fully and convincingly dismiss my concerns, but in the meantime we will have had an enlightening discussion.

So, no need to move us to the metaphysical realm, for the time being…
 
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  • #113
Hello w
saw.

Quote:-
----(i) To physics: There's a widespread opinion that physics has nothing to do with common sense and logic. In the realm of SR this view is unfortunately even more habitual. I think we do a great favour to SR, which is a beautifully true theory, if we reconcile it with logic.----

Physics in SR often goes against common sense in the sense that it is often counter intuitive. This is at the heart of the problem for beginners like myself. We must not hold on to our preconceived ideas when we swithc to SR. Physics has everything to do with logic. If you do not accept logical reasoning then anything can be accepted as true. Of course, on the other hand you must, having accepted a set of axioms, which of course in themselves may or not be true, you must accept the logical consequences of those axioms.

As to the scenarios used to illustrate the question of simultaneity, the normal train and embankment observer eaxample is simple and adequate for its purpose. Why introduce more complex examples to illustrate a consequence of the axioms of SR. It is a teaching aid. More complicated examples which are of the nature of a puzzle may be a useful excercise for the more competent student, as finding a resolution to the posed scenario can at that stage be a test of a thorough understanding of the principles involved. But in this case we are arguing the basics and if someone cannot understand and accept the basic principles how can they work out a resolution to the more puzzling examples.

Matheinste.
 
  • #114
Saw said:
Hope so. The story is substantially equivalent to Althonhare's, but it has two advantages: (i) the author's interpretation, which is wrong, is based on the "multiple reality” approach that we contest and it clashes with a sound, less “fantastic” understanding of SR and (ii) its display gives occasion to discuss some issues that are not purely conceptual, but might have relevant practical consequences.

It is the well known story introduced by Brian Greene in the Fabric of the Cosmos. I loved the book and very much respect the author, but he seems to be wrong in this point.

Let me explain it with some adaptations:

There is a duel on a train, between duellers that we will call Back and Front, situated at the tail and the tip of the car, respectively. For their duel, they employ laser guns, of identical construction.

There are two referees: Althonhare, on the train, and myself, Saw, on the ground. The signal for the commencement of the duel is given at the precise instant when Althon and myself are lined up. Of course, it is impossible that the two referees occupy the same position in space and so the perception of this alignment would require light traveling some distance from one to the other. But we stipulate that the distance is so small that its consequences are negligible. We all agree that the alignment (which is a single event) is simultaneous in both frames.

In order to give the duellers the signal for shooting, a pile of gunpowder, set midway between them (i.e., where Althon, on the car, and myself, on the ground, are standing at that instant), explodes and thus sends flashes of light in both directions.

Was the duel fair?

Each referee has a different opinion:

* Althon is certain that light from the flare reaches the duelers simultaneously, so he raises the green flag and declares it a fair draw.

[More technically: In the train frame, the light pulses travel equal paths in their respective directions and do it at the same speed. So the two distant events (= arrival of the signals to shoot) are SIMULTANEOUS.)

* According to the author, I wildly squeal foul play, claiming that Back got the light signal from the explosion before Front did. I explain that, because the train was moving forward, Back was heading toward the light while Front was moving away from it. This means that the light did not have to travel quite as far to reach Back, since he moved closer to it; moreover, the light had to travel farther to reach Front, since he moved away from it. Since the speed of light, moving left or right from anyone’s perspective, is constant, I am supposed to claim that it took the light longer to reach Front, since it had to travel farther, rendering the duel unfair.

[Idem: In the ground frame, light towards Back travels a shorter path, since its target is heading towards it, while light towards Front travels a longer path, since its target is escaping away. As both pulses travel at the same speed, the one that hits Back arrives earlier than the one that hits Front. The two distant events are NOT SIMULTANEOUS.]

Who is right? The matter is not trivial, because the judge who has made a mistake will be sanctioned by the competent supervision body and he may not be able to exercise his profession any more.

Fortunately (?), Einstein comes to the rescue of both with a salomonic opinion:

“Einstein’s unexpected answer is that they both are (…) they simply have different perspectives on the same sequence of events. The shocking thing that Einstein revealed is that their different perspectives yield different but equally valid claims of what events happen at the same time. Of course, at everyday speeds like that of the train, the disparity is small – Saw claims that Front got the light less than a trillionth of a second after Back- but were the train moving faster, near light speed, the time difference would be substantial” (literal quotation, I just changed the names).

But I am a prudent referee. I try to do my job properly. I know that the words of the law (you shall raise a green flag if the duel is “fair”) have a practical purpose and I must interpret them in the light of this practical purpose. The duel is “fair” if the two duelers are given equal opportunities of hitting each other, in practical terms. So my opinion that “Back got the signal earlier” is only relevant for the matter to be judged if it gives Back a real advantage (or disadvantage!).

To this effect, I consider the following scenarios:

(a) Back sees the signal earlier and fires earlier as well. Can his laser pulse hit Front before the latter receives the signal?
No. If two events are simultaneous in any frame, that must mean there is a spacelike separation between the two events, meaning neither event lies in the other event's future light cone.
Saw said:
(b) If not, they have both received the signals and shot their laser pulses. The latter will also take some time to reach their targets. During this time interval, theoretically, any dueler could try the usual trick: fire and stand aside, before being wounded. There is very little time for this deed, especially if we talk about laser guns, but we can imagine the distance arbitrary long for this purpose. Is this time interval longer for Back then for Front or vice versa?
Same time for both, since they're both at rest in the train frame, and they both fire at the same moment in this frame.
Saw said:
You can think of other scenarios if you wish. The more, the better. That is the point of the exercise.
Well, you could imagine a modified scenario where Front was at rest on the ground along with the referee, at just the right position so he happened to be right next to the front of the train when the light from the gunpowder explosion reached it. In this case, although Back and Front fire simultaneously in the train rest frame, in this frame Front is moving towards Back (and his clock is slowed down by time dilation), so Front has less time to step out of the way of Back's laser beam.
Saw said:
Then I call a group of experts on SR and ask their answers to the practical questions. If the answers, as I expect, are negative (there is no breach of the principle of equal opportunities), then I do not “wildly squeal foul play” as Brian Greene suggests. Instead, I gently and gallantly raise a green flag, in agreement with Althonhare’s opinion. Consequently, I keep my job, anyhow, but at the same time with a clear conscience, because I’ve done a good job. Brian, in turn, keeps being a wonderful scientist but does not promote any more bold philosophical interpretations of SR.
I think in Greene's scenario the point of the referees was just to judge whether both fired their lasers at the same time, not to judge whether the scenario was fair overall--it was really just a thought-experiment to illustrate the relativity of simultaneity, after all.
 
  • #115
JesseM said:
Well, you could imagine a modified scenario where Front was at rest on the ground along with the referee, at just the right position so he happened to be right next to the front of the train when the light from the gunpowder explosion reached it. In this case, although Back and Front fire simultaneously in the train rest frame, in this frame Front is moving towards Back (and his clock is slowed down by time dilation), so Front has less time to step out of the way of Back's laser beam.

That's another thought-experiment. I was asking about practical reasons why the duel might be fair for one frame and unfair for the other frame, in the original thought-experiment. The new configuration you mention is interesting but it is not "analogous". It raises a totally different discussion, which we could discuss somewhere else.

JesseM said:
I think in Greene's scenario the point of the referees was just to judge whether both fired their lasers at the same time, not to judge whether the scenario was fair overall--it was really just a thought-experiment to illustrate the relativity of simultaneity, after all.

To go step by step, do you agree that the game was fair and that I should have raised the green flag?
 
  • #116
Saw said:
That's another thought-experiment. I was asking about practical reasons why the duel might be fair for one frame and unfair for the other frame, in the original thought-experiment. The new configuration you mention is interesting but it is not "analogous". It raises a totally different discussion, which we could discuss somewhere else.
OK, I misunderstood what you meant by "you can think of other scenarios if you wish". I wouldn't say that considering the same physical situation in a different frame is a new "scenario", it's just a different perspective on the same scenario.
Saw said:
To go step by step, do you agree that the game was fair and that I should have raised the green flag?
I agree the game was fair, but if your job was just to judge if the two guns were fired simultaneously in your frame, then you should not have raised the green flag because they weren't. You seem to be overthinking this, Greene really was just trying to explain about simultaneity, he wasn't making any more subtle point about the game being "fair" in one frame and "unfair" in another.
 
  • #117
JesseM said:
OK, I misunderstood what you meant by "you can think of other scenarios if you wish". I wouldn't say that considering the same physical situation in a different frame is a new "scenario", it's just a different perspective on the same scenario.

As Dalespam usually observes, conventional language (English or Spanish) is tricky. I say "scenario" having one meaning in mind and you read having a different meaning in mind. I have consulted my dictionary and both meanings could be acceptable. In every day language, my view (just a different plot in the same stage) might be the rule. But in specialised scientific language you admit that a different scenario may include a change of physical situation. And, by the way, in my own language, “escenario” means “stage”!

I say this because it “illustrates” very well the problems we face in our discussion. We have to be patient with one another because language will constantly play tricks on us.

But it is team work and it may be rewarding, because it may help us to better understand what our formulas and diagrams mean. Mathematics is a wonderful tool. You put concepts among its wheels, you switch on the machinery and the automat produces by itself amazing new concepts you had never thought of. However, mathematical language is not immune to the same problem: you have to understand very well the concepts with which you feed the automat. Otherwise, it may produce wrong predictions.

JesseM said:
I agree the game was fair, but if your job was just to judge if the two guns were fired simultaneously in your frame, then you should not have raised the green flag because they weren't.

My job, as a judge, can never be just to judge if the two guns were fired simultaneously “in my frame”. My job is to make justice and I only do that if I declare the duel fair. Let us imagine that the legislator has read a little about SR, but has misunderstood it. So he has written “you shall raise the green flag if the two guns are fired simultaneously in your frame, but only in your frame, my friend”. Wouldn’t you agree that this law is defective, because it doesn’t understand how the universe works, as taught by physics? Wouldn’t you be forced, as a physic, to stand up and demand that it is amended?

JesseM said:
You seem to be overthinking this, Greene really was just trying to explain about simultaneity, he wasn't making any more subtle point about the game being "fair" in one frame and "unfair" in another.

Yes, I overthink everything… :devil:But I don’t want to personalize on anybody and less on Brian Greene, whose writings are delicious.

If he was just describing how relativity of simultaneity is measured, without making any more subtle point, that is perfect. So we agree that the duel was fair in both frames, without forgetting what this means: this illustrates that the “discrepancy” on measurements, the relativity of simultaneity, does not entail any discrepancy at all on what may happen or may not. The film of life (reality) will be the same anyhow. I know you agree with that. But let me rhetorically ask “right?”, so that you can say “so what?”.
 
  • #118
matheinste said:
Physics has everything to do with logic. If you do not accept logical reasoning then anything can be accepted as true.

Hello, mathe. I fully agree.

matheinste said:
Of course, on the other hand you must, having accepted a set of axioms, which of course in themselves may or not be true, you must accept the logical consequences of those axioms.

That is the question. You can do a better thing. You may try to grasp a better understanding of the axioms, so as to refine their meaning. This will ensure that, when you put them into the blind automat (math, geometry or logical reasoning with English), the outcome is a beautiful baby instead of a monster. That is what we are trying to do here. Although I admit it is sometimes a painful job, because words are devils!
 
  • #119
Saw said:
My job, as a judge, can never be just to judge if the two guns were fired simultaneously “in my frame”. My job is to make justice and I only do that if I declare the duel fair. Let us imagine that the legislator has read a little about SR, but has misunderstood it. So he has written “you shall raise the green flag if the two guns are fired simultaneously in your frame, but only in your frame, my friend”. Wouldn’t you agree that this law is defective, because it doesn’t understand how the universe works, as taught by physics? Wouldn’t you be forced, as a physic, to stand up and demand that it is amended?
Yeah, I agree that the law would be no good, since what's really important for the game to be "fair" is that they both have an equal amount of time on their own clocks (proper time) between firing their own gun and being hit by (or dodging) the other guy's laser.
Saw said:
Yes, I overthink everything… :devil:But I don’t want to personalize on anybody and less on Brian Greene, whose writings are delicious.

If he was just describing how relativity of simultaneity is measured, without making any more subtle point, that is perfect. So we agree that the duel was fair in both frames, without forgetting what this means: this illustrates that the “discrepancy” on measurements, the relativity of simultaneity, does not entail any discrepancy at all on what may happen or may not. The film of life (reality) will be the same anyhow. I know you agree with that. But let me rhetorically ask “right?”, so that you can say “so what?”.
Right, no disagreement here, and the fact that there's no disagreement about coordinate-independent facts like the proper time between two events on an observer's worldline is a key thing to understand when thinking about these kinds of thought-experiments.
 
  • #120
Wow, relativistic jurisprudence!
 
  • #121
JesseM said:
the fact that there's no disagreement about coordinate-independent facts like the proper time between two events on an observer's worldline is a key thing to understand when thinking about these kinds of thought-experiments.

Hm... It seems you didn’t want to express full agreement with my statement. May you have some reservation or am I overthinking again?

On the one hand, you confirm that observers cannot disagree on coordinate-independent facts like proper time. Ok. Whenever two observers from different frames meet, they look at their respective clocks and find discrepancy in their respective proper times. What is the fact here? That the clocks show different readings and in that the observers fully agree. So far so good.

On the other hand, do you imply, sensu contrario, that they could disagree on purported coordinate-dependent "facts"? The key word here is "facts", that is to say, reality, happenings, events. After revising the story, I do not find any coordinate-dependent "facts", but only coordinate-dependent concepts, concepts (i) in whose manufacturing process facts intervene, though the observers also agree upon the occurrence of those facts, one by one, and (ii) which serve to predict future facts, in whose occurrence all observers agree. That is to say, concepts that are “innocuous” for reality.

Take for example the concept of “simultaneity”. The referees pompously disagree on whether the two events were simultaneous or not. That sounds very dramatic, like a very serious matter. In fact, if this had really entailed that the duel was fair or not, it would have been dramatic. But we have discarded this. What is hence the real meaning of the discrepancy as to the simultaneity of the two events (the arrival of the shooting signals to the duellers)?

I would say that this issue of simultaneity is just the beginning of the sentence, but if you look at the whole sentence there isn’t the slightest discrepancy. Our mistake is interrupting the speaker when he has just pronounced the first words of his speech. One referee is saying “my judgment of simultaneity” + “you have TD” + “you have LC” and so is the other. It looks as if their respective statements were contradictory. But when you are patient enough to hear the whole “opinions” you find out, as we have concluded, that both referees have the same damned opinion on what really matters (the duel is fair)!

I think that is a better way to illustrate SR: focus on the general picture, which is one of agreement, instead of on the details, in which there is only an accessory disagreement.

If you agree with this so far, I would move on to retake my failed definition of absolute simultaneity…
 
  • #122
atyy said:
Wow, relativistic jurisprudence!
Yes, mixing fields is always productive. There is nothing that is really "metaphysical". But that is another war...
 
  • #123
Saw said:
On the one hand, you confirm that observers cannot disagree on coordinate-independent facts like proper time. Ok. Whenever two observers from different frames meet, they look at their respective clocks and find discrepancy in their respective proper times. What is the fact here? That the clocks show different readings and in that the observers fully agree. So far so good.

On the other hand, do you imply, sensu contrario, that they could disagree on purported coordinate-dependent "facts"? The key word here is "facts", that is to say, reality, happenings, events. After revising the story, I do not find any coordinate-dependent "facts", but only coordinate-dependent concepts, concepts (i) in whose manufacturing process facts intervene, though the observers also agree upon the occurrence of those facts, one by one, and (ii) which serve to predict future facts, in whose occurrence all observers agree. That is to say, concepts that are “innocuous” for reality.

Take for example the concept of “simultaneity”. The referees pompously disagree on whether the two events were simultaneous or not. That sounds very dramatic, like a very serious matter. In fact, if this had really entailed that the duel was fair or not, it would have been dramatic. But we have discarded this. What is hence the real meaning of the discrepancy as to the simultaneity of the two events (the arrival of the shooting signals to the duellers)?

It seems that you appear to not know anything with regards to the concept of "invariance". The fact that such concept (i.e. gauge invariance, etc.) is such an important aspect somehow is rather lost here.

Let's first of all get this very clear. There are plenty of physics, and certainly plenty of experiments, in which things are flying off at very high speeds of varying degree. High energy physics deals with such a thing all the time. Why do you think the values of any of the properties being measured are NEVER under any sense of confusion as far as reconciling observations made in different frames? Do you see values of the mass of various elementary particles, for example, have to be define with a particular frame, even when these particles are typically relativistic?

There is also another aspect that is lost here. Different observers in different frames can transform from one to another. There is no ambiguity. You see heads, I see tails. It doesn't mean that I cannot transform to the other side of the coin to see what you see. It is still the SAME object. It is no longer a big deal that something is simultaneous in one frame but not the other, especially when one can always choose a frame to suit one's needs. We do this in physics all the time to simplify many of our calculation. Many beam dynamics calculation are often done in the "rest frame" of the relativistic particle before transforming the end result back into the lab frame. So where is the problem here?

Zz.
 
  • #124
Saw said:
On the other hand, do you imply, sensu contrario, that they could disagree on purported coordinate-dependent "facts"? The key word here is "facts", that is to say, reality, happenings, events. After revising the story, I do not find any coordinate-dependent "facts", but only coordinate-dependent concepts, concepts (i) in whose manufacturing process facts intervene, though the observers also agree upon the occurrence of those facts, one by one, and (ii) which serve to predict future facts, in whose occurrence all observers agree. That is to say, concepts that are “innocuous” for reality.
It seems to me you are using strange personal word-definitions here--for me "coordinate-dependent fact" just means any quantitative judgement that depends on one's choice of coordinate system, I don't mean any deep philosophical implications by the use of the word "fact". If in one coordinate system an event has position coordinate x=5 meters and in another coordinate system the same event has position coordinate x=12 meters, this is a disagreement over coordinate-dependent facts, for example (and one that does not even require that the two coordinate systems are moving relative to one another, just that their origins are placed differently). Similarly, all that a disagreement over simultaneity means is that one coordinate system assigns two events identical t-coordinates while another coordinate system assigns them two different t-coordinates.
Saw said:
Take for example the concept of “simultaneity”. The referees pompously disagree on whether the two events were simultaneous or not. That sounds very dramatic, like a very serious matter.
Does it? To talk about the "seriousness" of a physical claim would seem to involve considerations outside of physics, so this would be more a discussion of philosophy. I suppose the fact that there is no physically preferred definition of simultaneity may have some implications for the debate over presentism vs. eternalism in philosophy (since there is no objective way to decide if two events share the same 'present', causing problems for the notion that only the present 'exists'), but if we get into this we're not talking about physics any more. Just in terms of physics, the meaning of disagreements about simultaneity is just that two events that have the same t-coordinate in one inertial frame can have different t-coordinates in another, and that the laws of physics are symmetrical between inertial frames so there is no physical basis for preferring one over another.
Saw said:
What is hence the real meaning of the discrepancy as to the simultaneity of the two events (the arrival of the shooting signals to the duellers)?
By the "real meaning", you mean the physical meaning defined in terms of actual physical measurements? Do you understand that every inertial coordinate system is physically defined in terms of local readings on a network of rulers and clocks at rest in that coordinate system, which have been synchronized according to the Einstein synchronization convention? With this in mind, the difference in judgments about simultaneity can be summed up by saying that if we have two clocks at either end of the train which have been synchronized in the train's frame using Einstein's convention, they will both read the same time when the lasers are fired next to them, but if we have two clocks on the ground which have been synchronized in the ground frame using Einstein's convention, and both clocks happen to be right next to the two duellers at the moment each fires his laser, then these two clocks will show different times when the lasers are fired next to them.
Saw said:
I would say that this issue of simultaneity is just the beginning of the sentence, but if you look at the whole sentence there isn’t the slightest discrepancy. Our mistake is interrupting the speaker when he has just pronounced the first words of his speech. One referee is saying “my judgment of simultaneity” + “you have TD” + “you have LC” and so is the other. It looks as if their respective statements were contradictory. But when you are patient enough to hear the whole “opinions” you find out, as we have concluded, that both referees have the same damned opinion on what really matters (the duel is fair)!
Why is that what "matters"? Do coordinates assigned to events not matter? Again, you seem to be referring to judgments of importance beyond the scope of physics here.
Saw said:
I think that is a better way to illustrate SR: focus on the general picture, which is one of agreement, instead of on the details, in which there is only an accessory disagreement.
You can't very well solve quantitative problems in SR without having a coordinate system to refer to!
Saw said:
If you agree with this so far, I would move on to retake my failed definition of absolute simultaneity…
Does "absolute simultaneity" mean you think one judgement of simultaneity in this problem might be "correct" while the other is "incorrect"?
 
  • #125
JesseM said:
It seems to me you are using strange personal word-definitions here--for me "coordinate-dependent fact" just means any quantitative judgement that depends on one's choice of coordinate system, I don't mean any deep philosophical implications by the use of the word "fact". If in one coordinate system an event has position coordinate x=5 meters and in another coordinate system the same event has position coordinate x=12 meters, this is a disagreement over coordinate-dependent facts, for example (and one that does not even require that the two coordinate systems are moving relative to one another, just that their origins are placed differently). Similarly, all that a disagreement over simultaneity means is that one coordinate system assigns two events identical t-coordinates while another coordinate system assigns them two different t-coordinates.

OK. If the disagreement is only on the values of measurements, I have no problem with that. You master the terminology, but I don’t. I wanted to be sure the agreement was full.

JesseM said:
To talk about the "seriousness" of a physical claim would seem to involve considerations outside of physics, so this would be more a discussion of philosophy. I suppose the fact that there is no physically preferred definition of simultaneity may have some implications for the debate over presentism vs. eternalism in philosophy (since there is no objective way to decide if two events share the same 'present', causing problems for the notion that only the present 'exists'), but if we get into this we're not talking about physics any more.

I personally have no philosophical idea in mind. Just interested in discussing the physics of the case, although it is true that I am quite slow in the introduction.

JesseM said:
By the "real meaning", you mean the physical meaning defined in terms of actual physical measurements? Do you understand that every inertial coordinate system is physically defined in terms of local readings on a network of rulers and clocks at rest in that coordinate system, which have been synchronized according to the Einstein synchronization convention? With this in mind, the difference in judgments about simultaneity can be summed up by saying that if we have two clocks at either end of the train which have been synchronized in the train's frame using Einstein's convention, they will both read the same time when the lasers are fired next to them, but if we have two clocks on the ground which have been synchronized in the ground frame using Einstein's convention, and both clocks happen to be right next to the two duellers at the moment each fires his laser, then these two clocks will show different times when the lasers are fired next to them.

Yes, I understand so and the definition is perfect for me.

JesseM said:
Do coordinates assigned to events not matter? Again, you seem to be referring to judgments of importance beyond the scope of physics here. You can't very well solve quantitative problems in SR without having a coordinate system to refer to!

Of course. You need a coordinate system and coordinates matter. Since you answer this, it is clear that I am not expressing myself well.

JesseM said:
Does "absolute simultaneity" mean you think one judgement of simultaneity in this problem might be "correct" while the other is "incorrect"?

Not at all. Obviously, you have no obligation to have read or to remember my previous posts… You may have a look at them, if you wish. But in any case I think that, so far, we agree on everything. I’ll come back later with a more practical question, closer to the physics of the case. Regards.
 
  • #126
JesseM said:
It seems to me you are using strange personal word-definitions here--for me "coordinate-dependent fact" just means any quantitative judgement that depends on one's choice of coordinate system, I don't mean any deep philosophical implications by the use of the word "fact". If in one coordinate system an event has position coordinate x=5 meters and in another coordinate system the same event has position coordinate x=12 meters, this is a disagreement over coordinate-dependent facts, for example (and one that does not even require that the two coordinate systems are moving relative to one another, just that their origins are placed differently). Similarly, all that a disagreement over simultaneity means is that one coordinate system assigns two events identical t-coordinates while another coordinate system assigns them two different t-coordinates.

Maybe we could try an understanding in this respect, because it is quite fundamental to the argument.

You say I might be handling a "strange personal word-definition" and that you do not mean yourself any "deep philosophical implication” of the word “fact"…

Well, my use of the word “fact” is quite down-to-earth. It is the most obvious meaning contained in the dictionary: “happening, occurrence, incident, event, act, deed”. Maybe I should have said, for consistency with previous comments and also with the specialised language of the theory, an “event”. But you used the word “fact” and to me, in common language, “fact” means “event”, which triggered my alarms.

For example, the hands of a clock at rest in my frame or in your frame reach a certain position. This qualifies as an event, as much as any other happening that takes place outside a measurement instrument.

Is this event “coordinate-dependent”? Not at all. The event in itself, that is to say, the occurrence of the event, is not “coordinate-dependent”. All observers agree that it has happened and could have predicted that it should happen, regardless the frame where the clock is situated. The same consensus applies to the “quantitative aspect”, since that is what the event is, after all: the hands of the clock get aligned with a certain number.

What does depend on “one’s coordinate system” is, yes, the “judgment” that you make. Because the clock is at rest in your frame (i.e., it marks time in your coordinate system), you judge that the clock reading provides you with the time coordinate of the nearby event, while another frame trusts for this purpose the reading of the clock at rest in his frame and in the vicinity of the event. There is discrepancy in this respect, but only on the judgment, not on the event.

If on top of that you find another event with the same time coordinate, you judge that the two events are “simultaneous” in your frame. Any discrepancy on events? No, only on judgments.

That is why I thought that the expression "coordinate-dependent fact" is ambiguous. I would prefer “coordinate-dependent value”, because “value” does convey the idea that the quantitative measurement, which is in itself an uncontroversial event, has a certain “value”, an utility for the measurer: it is a tool that he will combine with other values in order to solve the problem under study. Of course, the outcome of these calculations, as we all know, will not reach to any controversy on what happens, on events. Thus reality, a single reality, is preserved throughout the process.

I may be too punctilious with words, but I am not dreaming any metaphysical dream, just trying to settle solid foundations for discussion.
 
  • #127
Saw said:
Well, my use of the word “fact” is quite down-to-earth. It is the most obvious meaning contained in the dictionary: “happening, occurrence, incident, event, act, deed”.
Most people would say it's a "fact" that the word for "cat" in spanish is "gato", even though this is just a statement about a labeling convention in a certain language. Likewise, most people would say it's a "fact" that New York City is at latitude 40° 47' and longitude 73° 58' even though this is just a statement about its position in a certain human-defined coordinate system on the globe. Would you disagree? If so, I suggest that your use of the word "fact" is not, in fact, down-to-earth, but is actually quite idiosyncratic, since I'm sure pretty much everyone else would agree these things are straightforward facts. And if you would agree that these things are "facts", it's hard to understand why you wouldn't also agree that statements about coordinates of events in certain inertial coordinate systems are "facts".
Saw said:
That is why I thought that the expression "coordinate-dependent fact" is ambiguous. I would prefer “coordinate-dependent value”, because “value” does convey the idea that the quantitative measurement, which is in itself an uncontroversial event, has a certain “value”, an utility for the measurer: it is a tool that he will combine with other values in order to solve the problem under study. Of course, the outcome of these calculations, as we all know, will not reach to any controversy on what happens, on events. Thus reality, a single reality, is preserved throughout the process.

I may be too punctilious with words, but I am not dreaming any metaphysical dream, just trying to settle solid foundations for discussion.
Since "fact" is not a technical term with a rigorous meaning, I'm fine with defining "fact" and "value" however you prefer for the sake of this discussion. But again, if you're going to bring in your own idiosyncratic word-definitions that don't match how most people use language, you really need to explain your own definitions beforehand, rather than dispute statements by other people that use them in a more typical way without even explaining your own alternate definitions first, as this will just tend to cause confusion and miscommunications.
 
  • #128
matheinste said:
Quote:-
---I argue that, although the definition(s) you present seem reasonable, because they lead to a logical contradiction we conclude they are unacceptable. -----

Yes, the definition of absolute simultaneity does lead to logical contradictions in SR. That is exactly the point i was making.

I think you misunderstand. An event, action, or entity cannot be both "X" and "not X", even from different perspectives. You hang from the ceiling and see heads on a coin, I lay on the floor and see tails. There is no contradiction here. I see tails and you see heads, neither of us disagree on these statements. If you're falling and I'm lying still we may disagree on how fast the coin is moving or how long it is. We will not disagree that it IS moving, that it is moving away from the floor (no matter how you look at it, the distance between the coin and the floor increases at successive instants), that it is moving towards the ceiling, etc.

matheinste said:
----One observer says events AC and BD were not simultaneous, another says they were. This is logically unacceptable. ----

It is completely logical within SR. In fact it is fundamental. No one has to accept SR but if you do accept the light axiom of SR then you MUST accept the relativity of simultaneity. This is not just an opinion. The relativity of simultaneity follows as a logical consequence of the speed of light being the same in all inertial frames.

If it is the conclusion of SR that AC and BD were both simultaneous and non-simultaneous, regardless of frame, this is the definition of illogical. Both "X" and "not X".

matheinste said:
Quote:-
----You do not misunderstand. If you have a single set of distances from your eraser to every other entity in the universe the eraser is motionless by definition.----

Every "entity" at any point in time has a single set of distances from any and all other "entities". So by the above definition everything is always at rest. However my concern is with simultaneity. you can philosophise as much as you like but given an a set of axioms such as in SR you cannot argue against a consequence which follows logcally from these axioms. If you do not like the axioms then, fair enough, just say so. That is perfectly acceptable.

Matheinste

Yes, at every instant every entity is "at rest" by definition. An object cannot move in an instant by definition. Motion necessarily requires at least two locations. Nature does not recognize motion. An object looks at itself and says,"I just have location." It is humans, with memory for where something was, that infer motion and time. In the absence of conscious observers the universe is timeless.

JesseM said:
But the last three don't make sense except in the context of a particular reference frame, since different frames can disagree on which of two objects move faster, which of two objects is longer, and whether two spatially separated collisions happened at the same moment.

O1 and O2 are both motionless relative to each other while A and B speed away from both. They should both reach the same conclusions, of course. They say that A is longer than B and B is moving faster than A. O2 moves backwards (accelerating gently, let's stay within SR at least for now) and both A and B contract. O2 still concludes that A is longer than B and that B is moving faster than A. O2 just thinks O1, A, and B are all moving away from him/her now and calculates higher velocities for all of them, but nothing changes qualitatively.

And nothing should, logically.

JesseM said:
It's only a logical contradiction if you neglect to include the context of what reference frame you're talking about, which is always necessary for any physical claims which don't concern purely local events in SR. For example, there is nothing contradictory about the claims "X is simultaneous with Y in frame A" and "X is not simultaneous with Y in frame B".

No matter what "frame" you're in, there are no ontological contradictions.

JesseM said:
No, neither observer claims they were or weren't simultaneous in any absolute sense, they both agree the events were simultaneous in one frame and non-simultaneous in another. This is no more logically contradictory than the notion that object A can have a larger x-coordinate than object B in a coordinate system with the origin at one position and the axes oriented at a particular angle but object B can have a larger x-coordinate than object A in a different coordinate system with the origin at a different position and the axes oriented differently (a situation which can be true in Newtonian physics, and even in ordinary algebraic geometry).

But observers in rotated coordinate systems are not all talking about length. One is talking about length, another width, another height, and still another is talking about extent in a direction between these. There is no contradiction because they are not all talking about length.

On the other hand, with regards to simultaneity, the situation is not so. While an entity can have extent in 3 mutually perpendicular directions, there are not "different kinds" of simultaneity. There is simultaneous and there is not simultaneous.

JesseM said:
So now you are back to saying there is such a thing as absolute simultaneity? Why? And if so, do you at least admit that there's no reason to think that the preferred frame needs to be the one where the lightning strikes were simultaneous, since as I said before in post #82:

I'll concede that there's no reason to think that the local frame "E" is special.

JesseM said:
So if even a single object in the universe has a changing distance from the eraser, the eraser is not motionless? Does this mean the only way for any object to be motionless is if every single object in the universe is at rest relative to every other object?

Exactly. The only way for any entity to be motionless is for every entity to be motionless. And, in this case, it is impossible for one to "conclude" that something is motionless because this is necessarily an action that requires motion.

I'll come back to the "absolute simultaneity" issue you raised a little further down, where it'll make more sense.

JesseM said:
Why? If the qualities are coordinate-dependent ones, why is it problematic that there could be disagreements on which object has a greater value of the quality depending on which coordinate system is used?

You say the "greater value of the quality". We can talk about greater or lesser values of quantities, but not qualities. Qualities are an either or situation.

As I said, in different coordinate systems observers are not all talking about length. They may disagree about the precise quantity of the length, but never on a qualitative issue such as "Does A HAVE length?" or "Is A longer than B?".

jefswat said:
You have beaten me to the punch. While there may be nothing logically wrong with altonhare's definition of motion, it has no predictive power, explain's less than SR, and is utterly useless. Based on Quantum Mechanics and the Heisenburg (sp?) uncertianty principle we don't even know where any single particle may be, let alone everyone in the universe. Further more unless altonhare has a very good refidgerator that no one has ever seen before I don't think the word motionless has any interesting meaning within his framework (a pity, I am rather fond of the word). Further more, I challenge altonhare to explain, with his theory, how my eraser appears motionless to me without using relativity or even the word or concept of relativity. It can not be done which leads us back to Einstein and our friend relativity.

If you conclude the eraser is motionless it is due to faulty logic. If you use the definitions I have presented you will not be led astray. You can say "it looks motionless" all you want but this will not stand up to any degree of scrutiny. Indeed, to even have the thought "it's motionless" dynamic processes had to occur in your brain that debunk your conclusion. Your "eraser is motionless" conclusion is superficial.

refidgerator?

This isn't the quantum forum, but with regards to the indeterminacy principle I will say just a few words. The uncertainty in velocity (m=1 for simplicity) and position is not surprising or illogical. Qualitatively it is saying that "when an entity moves it doesn't sit still and when it sits still it doesn't move". It is impossible to assign a single location to that which is moving (by the definition of motion). It is impossible to assign a velocity to that which has a single location (by definition). The mathematical framework that correlates the world well incorporates the fundamental constant h into deriving a way to assign an "average location" to a moving entity because it is useful to know "about" where something is. The IP doesn't contradict locality, it supports it.

JesseM said:
Most people would say it's a "fact" that the word for "cat" in spanish is "gato", even though this is just a statement about a labeling convention in a certain language. Likewise, most people would say it's a "fact" that New York City is at latitude 40° 47' and longitude 73° 58' even though this is just a statement about its position in a certain human-defined coordinate system on the globe. Would you disagree? If so, I suggest that your use of the word "fact" is not, in fact, down-to-earth, but is actually quite idiosyncratic, since I'm sure pretty much everyone else would agree these things are straightforward facts. And if you would agree that these things are "facts", it's hard to understand why you wouldn't also agree that statements about coordinates of events in certain inertial coordinate systems are "facts".

Since "fact" is not a technical term with a rigorous meaning, I'm fine with defining "fact" and "value" however you prefer for the sake of this discussion. But again, if you're going to bring in your own idiosyncratic word-definitions that don't match how most people use language, you really need to explain your own definitions beforehand, rather than dispute statements by other people that use them in a more typical way without even explaining your own alternate definitions first, as this will just tend to cause confusion and miscommunications.

I'll give "fact" a rigorous meaning. I think we need to distinguish between "facts" and "statements of facts". To understand a "fact" we need to understand the concept of the "Universal Movie". Imagine you can take a picture of the entire universe from afar. The Universal Movie is a series of such photographs of every entity at a location. In each photograph an entity only has shape and location. The semblance of motion and time is provided by the incessant flowing of frames that contain each entity. The reason sentient beings perceive motion is that we can store in our memory previous frames of the movie.

A fact, then, consists of a particular clip of the Universal Movie with nothing taken out. In other words, it contains every minute detail of what actually happened irrespective of observers. A fact consists of an uninterrupted sequence of locations of every entity in the universe.

A "statement of the facts", on the other hand, is like a regular movie. There are only selected collections of frames from the UM spliced together. We see what the presenter considers the "interesting parts". This is akin to regular movies where we don't typically see the mundane day to day activities of a regular Joe, most of this is taken out because it is irrelevant to the main point the presenter is attempting to communicate.

So, whereas a fact is an uninterrupted series of the original film, a statement of the facts includes a description of key parts of an entity(ies) that the presenter believes is necessary for the audience to keep specifically in mind in order to understand the presentation/theory.

A "testimonial" is someone's concise summary of particular parts of the Universal Movie. If the clips the person presents matches exactly the corresponding frames in the Universal Movie, we call it, by definition, "truth". Otherwise, by definition, it is called a "lie". Truth and lies have nothing to do with intentions or opinions, but whether it matches what actually happened. Humans can only opine whether testimonials are true.

In science, evidence must consist solely of parts of the genuine Universal Movie, such as a bone found in a layer of the earth. Testimonials are not allowed, the only evidence is the real thing. It is a collection of genuine, scattered fragments of the facts/UM. A bone comprises but a few frames in the immense Universal Movie. The interpretation of the bone, on the other hand, is necessarily a "statement of the facts". An opinion presented in the form of an assumption. This the presenter expects you to take at face value, it is not in contention. What IS in contention is the theory that follows, which is based on the assumption.

For example, a knife with fingerprints on it is evidence. It just so happens, as a fact, that the fingerprints match Johnny's. Whether Johnny actually touched the knife is a statement of the facts. Legally this conclusion is treated as fact, as evidence, because it is reasonable from our experience. However, in science, we must treat this as an assumption. A reasoned statement from a person is not the same as evidence/fact itself, it is not equivalent to the frames in the UM where some event actually occurred. It is not the same for a bottle to be on the table as for someone to say the bottle is on the table. The former is a fact and the latter is a statement of the facts.

So, with regards to "absolute simultaneity". We cannot be in disagreement about qualitative aspects, i.e. facts. Such as "Are the fingerprints on the knife or not?" Technically this is a statement of the facts, the knife itself is the collection of facts. We can disagree on quantitative aspects: "What is the probability that Johnny has a hidden twin brother, or cloned himself, or ...?" This depends on an individual's experience, reasoning, and perspective. If we cannot agree on qualitative aspects we cannot get to quantitative aspects because such questions have no meaning. What can it mean to ask the chances of Johnny's prints getting on the knife by X mechanism if you disagree with the facts, that his prints are on the knife? These are binary decisions.

So, how do we "know" if AC and BD were "really" simultaneous? We would have to see the entire UM for the event. I would need the successive locations of every entity in the universe. If, in the same frame, A is in contact with C and B is in contact with D, they were simultaneous.
 
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  • #129
altonhare said:
I think you misunderstand. An event, action, or entity cannot be both "X" and "not X", even from different perspectives.
Of course it can, depending upon the nature of "X".
You hang from the ceiling and see heads on a coin, I lay on the floor and see tails. There is no contradiction here. I see tails and you see heads, neither of us disagree on these statements.
Looks like you just contradicted yourself by giving a counter-example to your initial claim.

If it is the conclusion of SR that AC and BD were both simultaneous and non-simultaneous, regardless of frame, this is the definition of illogical. Both "X" and "not X".
Nonsense. What would be a contradiction would be if relativity claimed that two events were both simultaneous and non-simultaneous from the same frame.
 
  • #130
altonhare said:
If you conclude the eraser is motionless it is due to faulty logic. If you use the definitions I have presented you will not be led astray. You can say "it looks motionless" all you want but this will not stand up to any degree of scrutiny. Indeed, to even have the thought "it's motionless" dynamic processes had to occur in your brain that debunk your conclusion. Your "eraser is motionless" conclusion is superficial.

"You can say "it looks motionless" all you want but this will not stand up to any degree of scrutiny."

If that statement is sound, then the following will be sound. replace motionless with "traveling at 299,792,458 m/s" and it (which represents my eraser) with "a photon of light".

"You can say "a photon of light looks like its traveling at 299,792,458 m/s" all you want but this will not stand up to any degree of scrutiny."

I believe that has stood up to quite a bit of scrutiny. You are saying the speed of light being constant in a vacuum is superficial. I think it is you making conclusions based on faulty logic. The constancy of the speed of light leads us to SR which leads us to time dialations and length contractions which necessarily leads us to the conclusion that two observers will disagree on what IS simultaneous based on their frame of reference
 
  • #131
Doc Al said:
Of course it can, depending upon the nature of "X".

Looks like you just contradicted yourself by giving a counter-example to your initial claim.

Wrong. You agree that I see heads. I agree that you see tails. I agree that I see tails. You agree that you see heads.

Doc Al said:
Nonsense. What would be a contradiction would be if relativity claimed that two events were both simultaneous and non-simultaneous from the same frame.

In any frame two observers cannot come to diametrically opposite conclusions. This is logically inadmissable. In the coin example I don't conclude "the coin IS heads", that doesn't make any sense. I conclude,"I see heads." You conclude that I see heads too.

jefswat said:
"You can say "it looks motionless" all you want but this will not stand up to any degree of scrutiny."

If that statement is sound, then the following will be sound. replace motionless with "traveling at 299,792,458 m/s" and it (which represents my eraser) with "a photon of light".

"You can say "a photon of light looks like its traveling at 299,792,458 m/s" all you want but this will not stand up to any degree of scrutiny."

You replaced a qualitative statement with a quantitative one, a difference I have been repeatedly harping on. The incident issue is motionless versus in motion, not quantitative velocity/speed.

Everything you said after was an irrelevant straw man.
 
  • #132
altonhare said:
In any frame two observers cannot come to diametrically opposite conclusions. This is logically inadmissable.
Right. So what point were you trying to make here?
altonhare said:
If it is the conclusion of SR that AC and BD were both simultaneous and non-simultaneous, regardless of frame, this is the definition of illogical. Both "X" and "not X".
In relativity, simultaneity of events is frame-dependent.
 
  • #133
altonhare said:
So, how do we "know" if AC and BD were "really" simultaneous? We would have to see the entire UM for the event. I would need the successive locations of every entity in the universe. If, in the same frame, A is in contact with C and B is in contact with D, they were simultaneous.
So you are saying the frame from which we see the UM is special
 
  • #134
JesseM said:
But the last three don't make sense except in the context of a particular reference frame, since different frames can disagree on which of two objects move faster, which of two objects is longer, and whether two spatially separated collisions happened at the same moment.
altonhare said:
O1 and O2 are both motionless relative to each other while A and B speed away from both. They should both reach the same conclusions, of course.
I assume O1 and O2 stand for observers? If they are both motionless relative to each other, of course they will reach the same conclusions about what is true in their own rest frames, since they share the same rest frame. But any coordinate-dependent conclusions they reach will be relative to their frame, if they understand relativity they will understand that in the context of a different reference frame one might reach different conclusions.
altonhare said:
They say that A is longer than B and B is moving faster than A. O2 moves backwards (accelerating gently, let's stay within SR at least for now) and both A and B contract. O2 still concludes that A is longer than B and that B is moving faster than A. O2 just thinks O1, A, and B are all moving away from him/her now and calculates higher velocities for all of them, but nothing changes qualitatively.
And what if O2 accelerates until it is at rest relative to B? In this case, in the inertial frame where O2 is now at rest after the acceleration, B is at rest while A has some nonzero velocity, so "A is moving faster than B" in the context of this frame. Of course there is no logical contradiction here, because neither O1 nor O2 is claiming one is moving faster than the other in any context-free sense, the two statements are "in the context of O1's coordinate system B has a higher coordinate velocity than A" and "in the context of O2's coordinate system A has a higher coordinate velocity than B". Do you see any contradiction between these statements?
altonhare said:
No matter what "frame" you're in, there are no ontological contradictions.
No, of course there aren't. But there's also no reason to believe there is any ontological truth about "velocity", since velocity is an inherently coordinate-dependent concept. Do you believe there's an ontological truth about which of two objects has a greater x-coordinate, or do you agree that an x-coordinate is an inherently coordinate-dependent concept?
JesseM said:
No, neither observer claims they were or weren't simultaneous in any absolute sense, they both agree the events were simultaneous in one frame and non-simultaneous in another. This is no more logically contradictory than the notion that object A can have a larger x-coordinate than object B in a coordinate system with the origin at one position and the axes oriented at a particular angle but object B can have a larger x-coordinate than object A in a different coordinate system with the origin at a different position and the axes oriented differently (a situation which can be true in Newtonian physics, and even in ordinary algebraic geometry).
altonhare said:
But observers in rotated coordinate systems are not all talking about length. One is talking about length, another width, another height, and still another is talking about extent in a direction between these. There is no contradiction because they are not all talking about length.
Rotated relative to what? Do you believe there is some ontological truth about which direction in space is "really" length and which is "really" width and height, or do you agree that these are arbitrary labels that each coordinate system can impose on their three coordinate axes? Of course it's true that one coordinate system's "length" direction is different from another's, but there is no objective truth about which direction is "really" length. Neither is there an objective truth about which direction is "really" the x-axis, the x-coordinate of an object is an inherently coordinate-dependent notion--do you disagree? If not, can you at least entertain the logical possibility that "velocity" is also an inherently coordinate-dependent notion, that there is no coordinate-independent ontological truth about which of two objects "really" has a greater velocity?
altonhare said:
On the other hand, with regards to simultaneity, the situation is not so. While an entity can have extent in 3 mutually perpendicular directions, there are not "different kinds" of simultaneity. There is simultaneous and there is not simultaneous.
But different coordinate systems in SR do have time axes that are rotated in 4D spacetime relative to one another--have you ever seen a Minkowski diagram? If you just assume that there must be an objective truth about whether events are "really" simultaneous (despite the fact that different SR coordinate systems disagree about whether they share the same t-coordinate) whereas you don't think there must be an objective truth about whether events "really" share the same x-coordinate in some sense that's independent of human choices about how to define coordinate systems (i.e. you don't assume there's some ghostly 'true' x-axis in the universe and that any coordinate system whose x-axis is rotated relative to the 'true' one is incorrect in some objective sense), then you are just begging the question here, assuming what you are trying to prove.
altonhare said:
Exactly. The only way for any entity to be motionless is for every entity to be motionless. And, in this case, it is impossible for one to "conclude" that something is motionless because this is necessarily an action that requires motion.
But if you believe there is an objective truth about whether events are simultaneous, this defines a preferred frame in SR, since only one frame's definition of simultaneity can match the "true definition". And once you have such a preferred frame, why not just go all the way and assume that anything that is motionless in this preferred frame is motionless in an absolute sense, even if other objects are moving relative to it? This would essentially just be a Lorentz ether theory (really more of an 'interpretation' of relativity than a 'theory' since it doesn't lead to any distinct experimental predictions).
JesseM said:
Why? If the qualities are coordinate-dependent ones, why is it problematic that there could be disagreements on which object has a greater value of the quality depending on which coordinate system is used?
altonhare said:
You say the "greater value of the quality". We can talk about greater or lesser values of quantities, but not qualities. Qualities are an either or situation.

As I said, in different coordinate systems observers are not all talking about length. They may disagree about the precise quantity of the length, but never on a qualitative issue such as "Does A HAVE length?" or "Is A longer than B?".
Again, if we forget relativity for the moment and just talk about spatial coordinate systems which are rotated relative to one another, do you think there is some objective truth about which direction in space is "length" or do you agree it's just an arbitrary label? Let's define the x-axis of a coordinate system as the "x-length" dimension, so the difference between the smallest x-coordinate which is occupied by a point on the object's surface and the largest x-coordinate which is occupied by a point on the object's surface would be its "x-length" relative to that particular coordinate system. But since different coordinate systems can have their x-axes oriented at different angles, the "x-length" relative to one coordinate system can be different than the "x-length" relative to another--this has nothing with relativity or length contraction, it's just a matter of any nonspherical object occupying more space in one direction than in other directions. Do you think there must be some objective truth about which of two objects has a greater x-length, implying there is some objective truth about which direction the universe's x-axis "really" lies, or do you agree that the very notion of an x-axis refers to human-defined coordinate systems and thus there is no coordinate-independent truth about an object's x-length, any more than there's a language-independent truth about whether a certain animal is really a "cat" or a "gato" or a "chat" or something else? (presumably you don't think there must be some language-independent truth about which of two animals has a longer name, for example).
altonhare said:
I'll give "fact" a rigorous meaning. I think we need to distinguish between "facts" and "statements of facts". To understand a "fact" we need to understand the concept of the "Universal Movie". Imagine you can take a picture of the entire universe from afar. The Universal Movie is a series of such photographs of every entity at a location.
Here you are again just begging the question by assuming objective reality consists of a series of 3D moments--can you not at least conceive of the logical possibility of the eternalist "block universe" view where reality is inherently a 4D spacetime structure, and the choice of how to slice it up into 3D moments is a human-dependent question, just like how a 3D block could be sliced into a series of 2D planes in a variety of ways depending on the angle of the slicing blade?
 
  • #135
altonhare said:
You replaced a qualitative statement with a quantitative one, a difference I have been repeatedly harping on. The incident issue is motionless versus in motion, not quantitative velocity/speed.

Everything you said after was an irrelevant straw man.

I disagree. I don't accept this:

altonhare said:
They may disagree on quantity/degree, but not on quality. If they disagree on quality they must check the presuppositions of their measurements/observations, at least one is ill-conceived. In all other areas we do not allow diametrically opposed qualitative descriptions.

For all of your definitions you should have included one for disagree because there are two types. There is fundamental disagreement and non-fundamental disagreement.

Non-Fundamental is rooted in a disagreement about superficial things like the color of a stop light. If a color blind person and a person with normal vision will look at it they will disagree on the color. This is rooted in the color blind persons different preception of the color.

Then there is a fundamental disagreement which would be like us agreeing on all of the characteristics of the light(including its wavelength and all other sceintific measurements one could perform) but then I think its blue and you think its red(you may be inclined to think that just named if different but that is not the real case, that is a shortfall of this analogy) We think that is is fundamentally different even though agreeing on all of the characteristics.

To observers seeing different and seemingly unconnected things is an example of non fundamental disagreement. If a stationary observer and a moving observer see things that they do not agree are simultaneous, their disagreement is based in the facts not the fundamentals. In this case the observers will disagree on how fast the train is moving relative to them. They WILL NOT, IF THEY HAVE ANY SCEINTIFIC OR MATHMATICAL BACKROUND (its in all caps and bold because its important) they will not disagree on the fundamentals. More often than not the cause of Fundamental disagreement is ignorance or arrogance. If I am stationary, based on SR, I will conclude that a person moving will observe "A" while I observe "B". The person moving will likewise conclude "A" but work out that I will observe "B". There is never a contradiction that is fundamental. If you feel there is please bring it up and we will show you why it is not.

So the point here is that, if they agree on all the facts like velocity and so on(and are given enough info), any two observers will NEVER have a fundamental disagreement on either a qualitative or quantitative observation for a given frame regardless of there frame!(requiring that they know how to translate and properly predict what the frame in question will observe i.e. SR)

With that I conclude that qualitative and quantitative are linked and that they will always agree on both for a given frame after they do the math regardless of their frame. If one is just as true is the other why can I not replace it(we will ignore the fact that I think motionless means Vrel=0 while you clearly do not)
 
  • #136
Doc Al said:
Right. So what point were you trying to make here?

In relativity, simultaneity of events is frame-dependent.

A cannot be both X and "not X". No matter what frames we're in. Like I said, in rotated frames we're not all measuring length, there's no contradiction here.

jefswat said:
So you are saying the frame from which we see the UM is special

It's not a frame. The UM is an abstraction that is useful for thinking and contemplating the universe. It refers to what we would see IF we could see every successive location of every entity (including photons). In this view we imagine what happens then we can go out into our limited reality to see if its consistent with what we imagined. If it's not then what we imagined is wrong.

JesseM said:
I assume O1 and O2 stand for observers? If they are both motionless relative to each other, of course they will reach the same conclusions about what is true in their own rest frames, since they share the same rest frame. But any coordinate-dependent conclusions they reach will be relative to their frame, if they understand relativity they will understand that in the context of a different reference frame one might reach different conclusions.

And what if O2 accelerates until it is at rest relative to B? In this case, in the inertial frame where O2 is now at rest after the acceleration, B is at rest while A has some nonzero velocity, so "A is moving faster than B" in the context of this frame. Of course there is no logical contradiction here, because neither O1 nor O2 is claiming one is moving faster than the other in any context-free sense, the two statements are "in the context of O1's coordinate system B has a higher coordinate velocity than A" and "in the context of O2's coordinate system A has a higher coordinate velocity than B". Do you see any contradiction between these statements?

But of course velocity is a vector. If O2 is at rest relative to B, then the velocity of A is now negative. O2 would be contradicting himself if s/he does not maintain this kind of consistency. So no they do not contradict each other, if O2 is self-consistent (considers speed to have directionality, forward and backward). O2 will still conclude that B is moving faster than A because zero is greater than a negative number.

JesseM said:
No, of course there aren't. But there's also no reason to believe there is any ontological truth about "velocity", since velocity is an inherently coordinate-dependent concept. Do you believe there's an ontological truth about which of two objects has a greater x-coordinate, or do you agree that an x-coordinate is an inherently coordinate-dependent concept?

There are no ontological contradictions and this scenario is no different, as I pointed out. The only one I've identified is the "relativity of simultaneity" in non colocal events. In this regard we either have to state that A) There is an absolute simultaneity or B) Simultaneity lacks meaning in the context of non-colocal events and we should stop bantering about this term.

JesseM said:
Rotated relative to what? Do you believe there is some ontological truth about which direction in space is "really" length and which is "really" width and height, or do you agree that these are arbitrary labels that each coordinate system can impose on their three coordinate axes? Of course it's true that one coordinate system's "length" direction is different from another's, but there is no objective truth about which direction is "really" length. Neither is there an objective truth about which direction is "really" the x-axis, the x-coordinate of an object is an inherently coordinate-dependent notion--do you disagree? If not, can you at least entertain the logical possibility that "velocity" is also an inherently coordinate-dependent notion, that there is no coordinate-independent ontological truth about which of two objects "really" has a greater velocity?

Logic tells me that observers should not come to qualitatively different conclusions and that, if they do, they have made at least one mistake. If O2 concludes that A moves faster than B now s/he forgot to account for direction. If one observer says the brick is longer and another says the steel is longer, one measured in the summer and the other in the winter. If one concludes that X is longer than Y and another the opposite, at least one of their premises is wrong. Reason tells me that we cannot hang our concerns on each one's "frame" because this is an artificial construct, a matter of perspective. Perspective shouldn't change what is. Erroneous or contradictory conclusions about what is can only arise through faulty premises.

JesseM said:
But different coordinate systems in SR do have time axes that are rotated in 4D spacetime relative to one another--have you ever seen a Minkowski diagram?

Yeah I've seen a Mink diagram.

The value of the time coordinate is a quantitative issue. Observers can disagree about these kinds of continuous, quantitative issues because they are not diametric opposites, they are not statements of logic of the form "X is A". They are essentially a bundle of descriptions. I have no problem with one observer's clock ticking slower than another observer's, I have a problem if one says X is motionless and the other says it's in motion.

JesseM said:
If you just assume that there must be an objective truth about whether events are "really" simultaneous (despite the fact that different SR coordinate systems disagree about whether they share the same t-coordinate) whereas you don't think there must be an objective truth about whether events "really" share the same x-coordinate in some sense that's independent of human choices about how to define coordinate systems (i.e. you don't assume there's some ghostly 'true' x-axis in the universe and that any coordinate system whose x-axis is rotated relative to the 'true' one is incorrect in some objective sense), then you are just begging the question here, assuming what you are trying to prove.

Hmmm. I don't think there is a "ghostly x axis" that is "out there". I think that observers in "rotated" coordinate systems, if they report their measurements specifically and clearly, will not contradict each other. If they all report "4 meters long!" they are being ambiguous and sloppy. They have to report exactly how they made the measurement in detail. The details of the measurement process are often glossed over in presenting rel quantitatively, how the observer got the number is taken for granted. It's just assumed that "if they have a clock and a ruler they're good to go". But how do different observers measure an entity's location and extent from a distance?

For instance, O1 is observing X. S/he first gets a handle on its relative location. How does s/he do so without leaving O1's frame? O1 can do nothing without moving relative to X because there is no change to monitor. Let's say O1 is in relative motion with X, Y, and Z, which are themselves motionless with respect to each other. Now O1 can use a photon counter with the Lorentzian wavelength broadening factor to quantify distances-traveled (and infer distance). Let's say Y is "to the left" of X and Z is "above" it. Y and Z are emitting to O1 along diagonal paths. To measure distances between X, Y and Z themselves O1 just holds up a ruler and eyeballs it. Also to measure the extent of X, Y, and Z (in 2 directions, O1 can't see its width in this scenario) O1 holds up a ruler and "eyeballs" it. O1 writes down wavelengths, the corresponding distances-traveled, and the corresponding length and height.

If other observers, in other states of relative motion, perform the same procedure they will arrive at consistent conclusions without a "coordinate transform". O1 says that X was 3 "meters" in extent in the direction in which it was 10 "meters" from Y while Y is 4 meters in extent in this direction. X was 5 meters in extent in the direction in which it was 8 meters from Z and Z was 2 meters in extent. The qualitative conclusion is "X is greater in extent than Z in the direction of Z, i.e. on a line connecting X and Z and X is smaller in extent than Y in the direction of a line connecting them". O2 says that X was only 1.5 meters in extent in the direction in which it was 3 meters from Y while Y was 2 meters. X was 8 meters in extent in the direction it was 12 meters from Z, while Z was 7 meters. O3 states... etc. These statements are not contradictory, they are simply different. In these sense there is no "absolute truth" behind length, width, and height. But also observers in different "coordinate systems" do not arrive at contradictory results if they are specific about their results. If O1 simply says "X is longer than Z and shorter than Y" while O2 says "X is shorter than Y while longer than Z" then they are simply being sloppy.
JesseM said:
But if you believe there is an objective truth about whether events are simultaneous, this defines a preferred frame in SR, since only one frame's definition of simultaneity can match the "true definition". And once you have such a preferred frame, why not just go all the way and assume that anything that is motionless in this preferred frame is motionless in an absolute sense, even if other objects are moving relative to it? This would essentially just be a Lorentz ether theory (really more of an 'interpretation' of relativity than a 'theory' since it doesn't lead to any distinct experimental predictions).

Absolutely not. The entity would be moving wrt every other non-aether entity. The aether is just another arbitrary frame, albeit it may be the most convenient one. The fact that we can find no "most convenient" frame is irrelevant to science, though engineers of communications satellites and such probably lament it. Einstein was right, the aether really was superfluous.

JesseM said:
Here you are again just begging the question by assuming objective reality consists of a series of 3D moments--can you not at least conceive of the logical possibility of the eternalist "block universe" view where reality is inherently a 4D spacetime structure, and the choice of how to slice it up into 3D moments is a human-dependent question, just like how a 3D block could be sliced into a series of 2D planes in a variety of ways depending on the angle of the slicing blade?

I see no evidence, empirical or logical, to support the block universe ontology. As far as I can tell there is no rigor to it, but a lot of seductively right sounding analogies.

You cannot cut a 3D block into 2D planes. Whatever slice you cut off will necessarily be 3D. 2D planes are abstract objects, i.e. we can visualize them but they lack location (do not exist). It is impossible to even imagine a 2D object's location because, if there is an entity situated directly in the 2D object's plane, the distance is impossible to discern. The 2D object is invisible from this vantage point. If there isn't an entity situated in such an unfortunate location relative to the 2D object, does it suddenly blink into existence again? Does it blink out when entity's line up with it?

2D analogies are popular because 2D is visualizable, but I see no reason to ascribe it the significance which it has been placed, such as extrapolation to 4D. One person I debated a similar topic with ended up just asking if I could "consider that which I cannot imagine" or "that which is outside my realm" or "that which is simply inconceivable". Of course I cannot consider that which I cannot imagine, I cannot imagine it. I must imagine to consider. I must imagine to "conceive". These are the types of arguments I expect from theists, not scientists. The appeal to the "unknowable" is a wildcard that insists one believes without a sound reason.
 
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  • #137
jefswat said:
I disagree. I don't accept this:



For all of your definitions you should have included one for disagree because there are two types. There is fundamental disagreement and non-fundamental disagreement.

Non-Fundamental is rooted in a disagreement about superficial things like the color of a stop light. If a color blind person and a person with normal vision will look at it they will disagree on the color. This is rooted in the color blind persons different preception of the color.

The color blind person says "light gray" and the normal person says "red". The sounds they utter are not what is important, what is important is the physical referent of the sound, i.e. what it points to in reality. If both actually define what they mean by gray and red, they will find that they do not disagree. For instance the color-blind person defines "light gray" as the color of stop lights, stop signs, and blood. The normal person agrees, s/he just calls it something different.

More rigorously, they could define their words in terms of wavelength. In this case they will need a particular device, which should give the same results within experimental error.

jefswat said:
Then there is a fundamental disagreement which would be like us agreeing on all of the characteristics of the light(including its wavelength and all other sceintific measurements one could perform) but then I think its blue and you think its red(you may be inclined to think that just named if different but that is not the real case, that is a shortfall of this analogy) We think that is is fundamentally different even though agreeing on all of the characteristics.

This doesn't make any sense. They did, indeed, just rename the exact same thing/phenomenon. Each observer has to define "red" or "blue" or "gray" in order to make things clear.

jefswat said:
To observers seeing different and seemingly unconnected things is an example of non fundamental disagreement. If a stationary observer and a moving observer see things that they do not agree are simultaneous, their disagreement is based in the facts not the fundamentals. In this case the observers will disagree on how fast the train is moving relative to them. They WILL NOT, IF THEY HAVE ANY SCEINTIFIC OR MATHMATICAL BACKROUND (its in all caps and bold because its important) they will not disagree on the fundamentals. More often than not the cause of Fundamental disagreement is ignorance or arrogance. If I am stationary, based on SR, I will conclude that a person moving will observe "A" while I observe "B". The person moving will likewise conclude "A" but work out that I will observe "B". There is never a contradiction that is fundamental. If you feel there is please bring it up and we will show you why it is not.

So the point here is that, if they agree on all the facts like velocity and so on(and are given enough info), any two observers will NEVER have a fundamental disagreement on either a qualitative or quantitative observation for a given frame regardless of there frame!(requiring that they know how to translate and properly predict what the frame in question will observe i.e. SR)

With that I conclude that qualitative and quantitative are linked and that they will always agree on both for a given frame after they do the math regardless of their frame. If one is just as true is the other why can I not replace it(we will ignore the fact that I think motionless means Vrel=0 while you clearly do not)

It has nothing to do with frames, and I believe your notion of "fundamental disagreement" vs. "non-fundamental disagreement" may be misconceived. There are no qualitative contradictions ("disagreements") regardless of frame. Observers do not have to consider each other's "frame" to reconcile qualitative aspects. They simply have to report their results in full, and therew ill be no contradiction. On the other hand observers in different frames will necessarily disagree on quantitative aspects. While quantitative aspects can be equated by transforming to each other's frames, qualitative aspects don't need to be because they are never contradictory.
 
  • #138
JesseM said:
Most people would say it's a "fact" that the word for "cat" in spanish is "gato", even though this is just a statement about a labeling convention in a certain language. Likewise, most people would say it's a "fact" that New York City is at latitude 40° 47' and longitude 73° 58' even though this is just a statement about its position in a certain human-defined coordinate system on the globe...

Ok, if you wish to continue the analysis (after the turmoil created by Althon), I'll leave aside subtleties on words and put things in a less baroque manner.

What was the goal? To discuss about what “the difference in judgments about simultaneity” means, just in case it is in the interest of physics.

1) First, “simultaneous” in a given frame means that:

JesseM said:
if we have two clocks at either end of the train which have been synchronized in the train's frame using Einstein's convention, they will both read the same time when the lasers are fired next to them, but if we have two clocks on the ground which have been synchronized in the ground frame using Einstein's convention, and both clocks happen to be right next to the two duellers at the moment each fires his laser, then these two clocks will show different times when the lasers are fired next to them.

You specify the origin of the clock readings, how they have been obtained (the clocks have been synched through the Einstein convention and have ticked afterwards at the corresponding rate).

(A couple of footnotes, about obvious things, which I note just in case they are useful:

- That is important to remember, because it is part of the physical content of the definition. We do not know how variations of that convention might affect the outcome (it would depend on the nature of the variations), but let us just note it.

- The observers get different values, but it’s also true that the measurements are events and so they happen in all frames and all frames agree that they happen. Furthermore, one frame can predict the quantity of the other’s measurement.)

2) Second, we must make use of the measurements of the observers for a purpose.

(Footnote: What purpose? For me, the aim of physics is “to solve problems”, like whether a duel is fair or not. Isn’t it? Can you think of a better purpose? In the context of a trial it looks as if physics were at the service of the law. But you can think of other examples. Usually, what you do is solving practical problems. Anyhow, what is important here is that there is always a purpose.)

3) Third, your measurements serve their purpose by combination with other measurements.

The judgments about simultaneity alone do not serve any purpose. For example, in our case, we have to combine them with another measurement: we must determine if “both duellers have an equal amount of time on their own clocks between firing their own gun and being hit by (or dodging) the other guy's laser”. Once we do it, the trick is done. In my frame, the proper time of Back when shot – the proper time of Back when shooting = the proper time of Front when shot – the proper time of Front when shooting. So the duel is fair.

(Footnote: Both referees agree that the other has correctly applied the formula and obtained, ultimately, the right solution. Maybe you could comment on technicalities of this operation that I might have missed.)

Conclusion: both judgments of simultaneity are right, in the sense that, after due consideration of their origin and due combination with other measurements, they serve beautifully the common practical purpose.

Did I do my homework? Does this look more reasonable?
 
  • #139
altonhare said:
The color blind person says "light gray" and the normal person says "red". The sounds they utter are not what is important, what is important is the physical referent of the sound, i.e. what it points to in reality. If both actually define what they mean by gray and red, they will find that they do not disagree. For instance the color-blind person defines "light gray" as the color of stop lights, stop signs, and blood. The normal person agrees, s/he just calls it something different.

That is why I included the disclaimer. Because that notion is prone to lead people off track.

altonhare said:
More rigorously, they could define their words in terms of wavelength. In this case they will need a particular device, which should give the same results within experimental error.
exactly, Fundamental would be, red light has wave length 600nm. the light is 600 nm. you think its blue I think its red. Non-Fundamental would be along the lines of disagreement on the wavelength and so on.

altonhare said:
This doesn't make any sense. They did, indeed, just rename the exact same thing/phenomenon. Each observer has to define "red" or "blue" or "gray" in order to make things clear.
It doesn't make sense because one of the observers made a clear error.


altonhare said:
It has nothing to do with frames, and I believe your notion of "fundamental disagreement" vs. "non-fundamental disagreement" may be misconceived.
I believe I cleared that up?

I have to go to class I will finish later. Do you now agree with my definitions?
 
  • #140
altonhare said:
Logic tells me that observers should not come to qualitatively different conclusions and that, if they do, they have made at least one mistake. If O2 concludes that A moves faster than B now s/he forgot to account for direction. If one observer says the brick is longer and another says the steel is longer, one measured in the summer and the other in the winter. If one concludes that X is longer than Y and another the opposite, at least one of their premises is wrong.
It's not "logic" telling you things, it's your questionable notions about the way things work. You claim that a statement such as "X is longer than Y" is some kind of "qualitative" statement and thus frame independent. Yet it involves measurements of length, which are intimately tied to our notions of simultaneity and time and which we know are frame dependent.

It's perfectly reasonable (inescapable, really), given what we mean when we say that X or Y has a length, for two different observers to disagree on which of two objects is longer. (Of course, observers who are aware of how the world actually works are not at all surprised by this.)
Reason tells me that we cannot hang our concerns on each one's "frame" because this is an artificial construct, a matter of perspective. Perspective shouldn't change what is. Erroneous or contradictory conclusions about what is can only arise through faulty premises.
Again, there is no contradiction. The fact that measurements of length and time, and thus comparisons of distances and intervals, are frame dependent presents no contradiction. You have yet to give one single instance (other than handing waving philosophy) where there is a real contradiction.

Sounds to me like you are more interested in discussing your preconceived "metaphysical" notions than in discussing physics.
 
  • #141
jefswat said:
That is why I included the disclaimer. Because that notion is prone to lead people off track.exactly, Fundamental would be, red light has wave length 600nm. the light is 600 nm. you think its blue I think its red. Non-Fundamental would be along the lines of disagreement on the wavelength and so on. It doesn't make sense because one of the observers made a clear error.
I believe I cleared that up?

I have to go to class I will finish later. Do you now agree with my definitions?

No, nothing you said makes sense. Nobody made an error. The color-blind person points and says "light gray". He's not in error unless he then states that "light gray" is not the color of a stop light. The normal person thinks the color-blind person is in error because s/he assumes the color-blind person means the exact same thing s/he does by "light gray". The normal person, instead of assuming this, asks the color blind person what s/he means by "light gray". The color blind person says "Light gray is the color of love, blood, bricks, stop signs, stop lights, and freckles. The normal person agrees that the stop light is indeed of a color similar to all those things, which s/he just happens to call "red" instead of "light gray".

Doc Al said:
It's not "logic" telling you things, it's your questionable notions about the way things work. You claim that a statement such as "X is longer than Y" is some kind of "qualitative" statement and thus frame independent. Yet it involves measurements of length, which are intimately tied to our notions of simultaneity and time and which we know are frame dependent.

Qualitative statements are an either or situation. They may be based upon a measurement, but ultimately the output is a 1 or a 0. Measurements may be quantitatively different in different frames but they cannot output conflicting qualitative conclusions. In general I've shown that SR is fine on this matter, i.e. different frames reach the non-contradictory conclusions in all instances. Except for this "relativity of simultaneity" issue. This is the only situation where there is qualitative disagreement. The fact that it's the ONLY one within the theory that violates this rule and my own logical assessment tell me there is something wrong here.

Doc Al said:
It's perfectly reasonable (inescapable, really), given what we mean when we say that X or Y has a length, for two different observers to disagree on which of two objects is longer. (Of course, observers who are aware of how the world actually works are not at all surprised by this.)

You cannot illustrate a single instance where two observers will reach different qualitative conclusions unless they are A) Sloppy or B) Talking about non local simultaneity

Doc Al said:
Again, there is no contradiction. The fact that measurements of length and time, and thus comparisons of distances and intervals, are frame dependent presents no contradiction. You have yet to give one single instance (other than handing waving philosophy) where there is a real contradiction.

Sounds to me like you are more interested in discussing your preconceived "metaphysical" notions than in discussing physics.

I'm concerned that, in general, the "no qualitative contradictions" rule holds up within SR except in a specific case, the "relativity of simultaneity".
 
  • #142
altonhare said:
But of course velocity is a vector. If O2 is at rest relative to B, then the velocity of A is now negative.
Speed is not a vector though. You claim that if different frames disagree on which of two objects has a larger value of X, this would be a logical contradiction; does this not apply when X=speed even though you think it applies when X=velocity?

Also, of course if O2 just rotates his coordinate system 180 degrees so that the new direction of increasing x-coordinate was the old direction of decreasing x-coordinate, then in this new coordinate system A will have a positive velocity while B is at rest.
JesseM said:
No, of course there aren't. But there's also no reason to believe there is any ontological truth about "velocity", since velocity is an inherently coordinate-dependent concept. Do you believe there's an ontological truth about which of two objects has a greater x-coordinate, or do you agree that an x-coordinate is an inherently coordinate-dependent concept?
altonhare said:
There are no ontological contradictions and this scenario is no different, as I pointed out.
Wait, when you say it's "no different" that means you believe there is an ontological truth about which of two event "really" has a greater x-coordinate, independent of our choice of coordinate system? This would seem to imply you believe the universe contains a ghostly "true" x-axis, such that if one event has a greater x-coordinate on the One True x-axis, then it "really" has a greater x-coordinate in an ontological sense, even though an observer could perfectly well choose a coordinate system with a different origin or rotated coordinate axes where the same event has a smaller x-coordinate.
altonhare said:
Logic tells me that observers should not come to qualitatively different conclusions and that, if they do, they have made at least one mistake.
How does "logic" tell you that? Different coordinate systems are just different ways of labeling events, much like different languages are different ways of naming objects. Do you think it is an ontological truth that the animal we call "giraffe" has a longer name than the animal we call "cat", even though in a different language the first animal might have a shorter name? Or do you agree that there need be no ontological truth about which of two animals has a longer name in a language-independent sense, that the very notion of "name length" is inherently relative to a particular choice of language? If the latter, I don't see how there could possibly be anything inherently illogical about the notion that "velocity" or "x-coordinate" are inherently relative to a particular choice of coordinate system (which, again, is just a convention for labeling events), and that there would be no ontological truth about which object has a greater "velocity" in a coordinate-independent sense.
altonhare said:
Reason tells me that we cannot hang our concerns on each one's "frame" because this is an artificial construct, a matter of perspective.
Yes, and my argument is that certain quantities are inherently frame-dependent, and thus there is no objective frame-independent reality about which of two objects has a greater velocity, the answer will depend on which of these artificial constructs we happen to use. Similarly, language is an artificial construct for assigning symbols to objects and concepts, and there is no objective language-independent reality about which of two animals has a longer name.
altonhare said:
Perspective shouldn't change what is.
Why do you think velocity (or x-coordinate) is part of "what is"? Do you think "name length" is part of what is?
JesseM said:
If you just assume that there must be an objective truth about whether events are "really" simultaneous (despite the fact that different SR coordinate systems disagree about whether they share the same t-coordinate) whereas you don't think there must be an objective truth about whether events "really" share the same x-coordinate in some sense that's independent of human choices about how to define coordinate systems (i.e. you don't assume there's some ghostly 'true' x-axis in the universe and that any coordinate system whose x-axis is rotated relative to the 'true' one is incorrect in some objective sense), then you are just begging the question here, assuming what you are trying to prove.
altonhare said:
Hmmm. I don't think there is a "ghostly x axis" that is "out there". I think that observers in "rotated" coordinate systems, if they report their measurements specifically and clearly, will not contradict each other.
They won't get physical contradictions as long as they understand that coordinate-dependent quantities don't represent objective physical truths. But do you deny that for two points in space, two different coordinate systems can disagree about whether they share the same x-coordinate or not? For example, in one system point A might be assigned coordinates x=0,y=0 while point B might be assigned x=4,y=3, but then in a second coordinate system with axes rotated relative to the first, point A might be assigned coordinates x=0,y=0 while point B is assigned x=0,y=5. Notice that this has nothing to do with relativity, it's just about coordinate systems whose axes are oriented differently in ordinary 2D geometry. So: do you think there is an objective, coordinate-independent truth about whether point A and point B share the same x-coordinate? If so, how can you justify this without believing in a ghostly "true" x-axis which is independent of the choices we fallible humans make about how to orient our own coordinate axes?
altonhare said:
For instance, O1 is observing X. S/he first gets a handle on its relative location. How does s/he do so without leaving O1's frame?
The standard procedure in SR is for O1 to define everything in terms of local measurements on a system of rulers at rest relative to O1, with clocks at each ruler-marking that are synchronized according to the Einstein synchronization procedure. Than if X passes next to the 3-meter mark on his x-axis ruler when the clock at that mark reads 5 seconds, O1 will say that in his frame, X was at position x=3 meters at time t=5 seconds. And if X is an extended object, O1 is supposed to define the length of X by looking at where the front and back of it was at a single time according to his clock system. For example, if the front of X was at the 10-meter mark when the clock there read 2 seconds, and the back of X was at the 15-meter mark when the clock there read 2 seconds, then X must have a length of 15 - 10 = 5 meters in O1's frame.
altonhare said:
If other observers, in other states of relative motion, perform the same procedure they will arrive at consistent conclusions without a "coordinate transform". O1 says that X was 3 "meters" in extent in the direction in which it was 10 "meters" from Y while Y is 4 meters in extent in this direction. X was 5 meters in extent in the direction in which it was 8 meters from Z and Z was 2 meters in extent. The qualitative conclusion is "X is greater in extent than Z in the direction of Z, i.e. on a line connecting X and Z and X is smaller in extent than Y in the direction of a line connecting them". O2 says that X was only 1.5 meters in extent in the direction in which it was 3 meters from Y while Y was 2 meters. X was 8 meters in extent in the direction it was 12 meters from Z, while Z was 7 meters. O3 states... etc. These statements are not contradictory, they are simply different. In these sense there is no "absolute truth" behind length, width, and height. But also observers in different "coordinate systems" do not arrive at contradictory results if they are specific about their results. If O1 simply says "X is longer than Z and shorter than Y" while O2 says "X is shorter than Y while longer than Z" then they are simply being sloppy.
If each observer uses the procedure I discuss above, then there can in fact be situations where different frames disagree about which of two objects is longer, even if they agree on the orientations of their x-axis, y-axis, and z-axis.

And again, do you think your claim about observers never disagreeing about which of two objects has a greater length should also apply to questions of which of two events has a greater x-coordinate? In this case, as I said we don't even need to think about relativity to see that different coordinate systems can easily disagree on this.
altonhare said:
Absolutely not. The entity would be moving wrt every other non-aether entity. The aether is just another arbitrary frame, albeit it may be the most convenient one.
But I'm not using "Lorentz ether theory" to refer to the notion of an actual physical ether, but just to the notion that there is some absolute truth about frame-dependent ideas like simultaneity and length and velocity, there needn't be any physical substance at rest in the preferred frame.
altonhare said:
I see no evidence, empirical or logical, to support the block universe ontology.
Where have I said there was? I just said there is nothing logically contradictory about it.
altonhare said:
You cannot cut a 3D block into 2D planes. Whatever slice you cut off will necessarily be 3D. 2D planes are abstract objects, i.e. we can visualize them but they lack location (do not exist).
Yes, the "slicing" is purely abstract, not physical. If you define an x-y-z coordinate system in 3D space to label every point, then if you take the complete set of all points that have some fixed z coordinate, this set forms an abstract 2D plane. Similarly, in the block universe I didn't mean to suggest a magical knife that could actually cut through 4D spacetime, I just meant that you could define different coordinate systems in this spacetime, and a complete set of events with some fixed t coordinate forms an abstract 3D moment.
altonhare said:
One person I debated a similar topic with ended up just asking if I could "consider that which I cannot imagine" or "that which is outside my realm" or "that which is simply inconceivable". Of course I cannot consider that which I cannot imagine, I cannot imagine it. I must imagine to consider.
Any mathematical description of something is a way of imagining it, even if we can't form a visual picture of it. I can't visualize colors of light outside the visible spectrum but I can form a mathematical model of such light in terms of its frequency, and use the model to make predictions about experimental results involving infrared or ultraviolet radiation.
 
  • #143
altonhare said:
Qualitative statements are an either or situation. They may be based upon a measurement, but ultimately the output is a 1 or a 0.
So?
Measurements may be quantitatively different in different frames but they cannot output conflicting qualitative conclusions.
Sure they can.
In general I've shown that SR is fine on this matter, i.e. different frames reach the non-contradictory conclusions in all instances. Except for this "relativity of simultaneity" issue.
Uh... You do realize that this "relativity of simultaneity" issue is at the heart of relativity?

Also, your use of the term "non-contradictory" is non-standard. You have yet to show how SR leads to any actual contradictions. All you've shown is that it contradicts your arbitrary "rule". So what?
This is the only situation where there is qualitative disagreement. The fact that it's the ONLY one within the theory that violates this rule and my own logical assessment tell me there is something wrong here.
I'd say that the problem is your insistence that "qualitative" statements must be frame independent.
You cannot illustrate a single instance where two observers will reach different qualitative conclusions unless they are A) Sloppy or B) Talking about non local simultaneity
That might well be true. So?
I'm concerned that, in general, the "no qualitative contradictions" rule holds up within SR except in a specific case, the "relativity of simultaneity".
If you want to understand relativity, you'd better get used to the relativity of simultaneity (as well as length contraction and time dilation).
 
  • #144
altonhare said:
No, nothing you said makes sense. Nobody made an error. The color-blind person points and says "light gray". He's not in error unless he then states that "light gray" is not the color of a stop light. The normal person thinks the color-blind person is in error because s/he assumes the color-blind person means the exact same thing s/he does by "light gray". The normal person, instead of assuming this, asks the color blind person what s/he means by "light gray". The color blind person says "Light gray is the color of love, blood, bricks, stop signs, stop lights, and freckles. The normal person agrees that the stop light is indeed of a color similar to all those things, which s/he just happens to call "red" instead of "light gray".

I don't understand why you won't take what I say without putting your own spin on it.

Non-Fundamental disagreement The quote would be a definition of Non-Fundamental disagreement. Clearly they are just disagreeing about something superficial. I say a car has length(the traditional sense) of 6 and you say it has length 2. there is a contradiction here because one says 2 and one says 6. However if I then told you one thought 6 feet, the other thought 2 yards you would agree there is no contradiction because they simply did not agree on something superfical like the scale they were using. In general non-fundamental disagreement is about the details like definitions or how fast you were going. I am going south at 10 m/s on a given cordinate system. a ball is stuck at the origin. You are going 15 m/s north. obviously we both conclude that the ball is moving at a different velocity relative to ourselves. Then the uneducated one assumes that one must be wrong. but when you look at the details you see that both answers are in fact correct because of the word relative.

Fundamental disagreement is far more severe. All parties involved agree on everything except the final outcome. I define red to be 600nm wavelength(I made that up). We measure light of 600 nm. I think its red, you think its blue but we both agree that 600nm wavelength is red light. obviously the person who thinks its blue is just not thinking clearly. This is the kind of disagreement that leads to fatal flaws in theories and contradictions that can't be solved. It is also the type of disagreement that after 100 years, SR still have not been proven to have.

Does anyone else have a problem understanding this? Its basic philosophy.(Thats actually where I stole it from)

altonhare said:
Qualitative statements are an either or situation. They may be based upon a measurement, but ultimately the output is a 1 or a 0.

Really? A is going faster than B. A is going MUCH faster than B. A is barely going faster than B. I make no mention of numbers.

altonhare said:
Measurements may be quantitatively different in different frames but they cannot output conflicting qualitative conclusions.


In my ball example, I measure the ball to be going north at 10 m/s. You measure the ball to be going south at 15 m/s. If you still don't feel that north and south are qualitative, replace them with up and down. One observer says up at 10 m/s, the other says down at 15 m/s. they both disagree on qualitative and quantitative measurements. You need to use relativity to reconcile these to disagreements Furthermore, if a wall is also moving towards the ball at 10 m/s, but is on the other side of it from me, I see the ball hit the wall. the other observer sees the wall hit the ball.

I think you need to start new and give us your theory as it stands now. You have changed your mind so many times that I don't know what you believe anymore and consequently, my arguments may be outdated and therefore irrelivent.
 
  • #145
jefswat said:
I don't understand why you won't take what I say without putting your own spin on it.

Non-Fundamental disagreement The quote would be a definition of Non-Fundamental disagreement. Clearly they are just disagreeing about something superficial. I say a car has length(the traditional sense) of 6 and you say it has length 2. there is a contradiction here because one says 2 and one says 6. However if I then told you one thought 6 feet, the other thought 2 yards you would agree there is no contradiction because they simply did not agree on something superfical like the scale they were using. In general non-fundamental disagreement is about the details like definitions or how fast you were going. I am going south at 10 m/s on a given cordinate system. a ball is stuck at the origin. You are going 15 m/s north. obviously we both conclude that the ball is moving at a different velocity relative to ourselves. Then the uneducated one assumes that one must be wrong. but when you look at the details you see that both answers are in fact correct because of the word relative.

Fundamental disagreement is far more severe. All parties involved agree on everything except the final outcome. I define red to be 600nm wavelength(I made that up). We measure light of 600 nm. I think its red, you think its blue but we both agree that 600nm wavelength is red light. obviously the person who thinks its blue is just not thinking clearly. This is the kind of disagreement that leads to fatal flaws in theories and contradictions that can't be solved. It is also the type of disagreement that after 100 years, SR still have not been proven to have. Does anyone else have a problem understanding this? Its basic philosophy.(Thats actually where I stole it from)

I agree. I usually put it this way: you cannot mistake Cinderella by the slipper, which is just a crafty way to catch her, a clever invention of the human mind for hunting purposes, but not the target itself.

Everything Althnonhare says makes sense if you substititute “measurement” (the slipper) for “quantitative” and “reality” (Cinderella) for “qualitative”.

What else can be the final outcome, other than what you seek from the beginning = solve practical problems where real things that “exist” are involved and interact with others, producing events that “happen” and causing us practical concerns (did Althon murder Mathe?, was the duel fair?).

I do not see why Althonhare insists on labelling as the outcome or the target of the exercises, on putting at the privileged place of things that are unique and fundamental, a mere concept like simultaneity. Simultaneity, like time, does not exist, it is not real. It is a concept, a mere human invention that, in itself, is neither absolute nor relative: it is, like all other concepts (like the slipper), either functional or non-functional, it serves its purpose or not. If thanks to the trick, you catch and marry the real Cinderella, it was good; if instead, because one of the step sisters has trimmed off her heel and manages to put on the slipper, you marry her, it is clear that the trick didn´t work, probably because you had lost the north of the exercise and had started to reify the slipper and think that the instrument, a certain configuration of the trick, was the game itself.

The concept of relative simultaneity of SR cannot be accused of this mistake, because it has been framed so as to respect reality: all observers who apply it (by combination with other measurement of other relative concepts) agree that the same “events” happen, which leads to a single outcome, a single solution to the issue at stake: the real murderer is sent to jail and the bad referee is sanctioned. Here the simile is legal but you can replace it with any other practical problem you encounter in real life (if this life is real, but apparently it seems so!).

Therefore, the “different judgments of simultaneity” are valid and true, as long as each of them works and enables us to identify the real murderer or the referee who rightly declared the duel fair or unfair. But we must not forget in which sense they are both valid and true: only because they did the trick, they wouldn’t if they didn’t!

Forgetting this may lead us to two kinds of mistakes.

1) Althonhare’s mistake: identifying as preferable in absolute terms just one version of simultaneity, just because it happens in the same frame where the rest of the instruments are placed. Preferring the reading of the clocks of the train, just because the hot chair is on it or the duel takes place on the train. That is conceptually wrong. That equates to saying that what is relative, what has been designed as a relative concept precisely because it thus serves its purpose, is absolute, just because it is absolute. And what does that mean? Nothing? The judgment of the train is only an instrumental concept, and as such it will be valid and useful if it works and invalid if it doesn’t work, just like the judgment on the ground.

But there is a caveat! I can concede that he is somehow (not conceptually but instrumentally) right if we introduce the element of test and trial. In his configuration, he mentions that electrical engineers have tested the device numerous times and checked that it works. Certainly, even in that case, the observer on the ground may obtain the same prediction of the outcome and if this is so, both are right and saying that the electrical bolts (or the instants when the dueller see the signal for shooting) are simultaneous or not is just an accessory matter, where both parties are entitled to be right. (Accessory, Jesse, only in the sense that it is a piece to reconstruct the puzzle of reality, not the puzzle itself, but of course it is an essential part of the puzzle). However, if it is proved that the system works on the train, on the basis of its judgment of simultaneity, and that it wouldn’t work on the basis of the judgment of simultaneity of the ground, then it is clear that there is something wrong…

Where? Well, in that case, I would not still dismiss SR. The idea, the trick, is still valid. We would just have to check how we have adapted the idea to reality. And this has a lot to do with the way we have designed our physical measurement instruments and the way we have drafted our formulas, in order to better account for how things work. Because that, and not other, is the way things are: the universe does not conform to relativity, relativity must conform to the universe if it aspires to catch reality and solve problems successfully! You shape the slipper following the mould of Cinderella’s foot, not the other way round.

2) Thus we introduce the second mistake. You often hear the contention that time and simultaneity are relative because… that is the way the universe is! Other times you hear that SR, as a scientific theory, does not enter into the philosophical discussion of what time is, but it can be affirmed that time is always and will always be measured as relative.

That is also conceptually wrong. Time is neither absolute nor relative, because it does not exist. Time, I agree, is what is measured as such. The rest of the concept that is usually intermixed with measured time in common language is the idea that things happen, “reality”. But I agree that in science reality must be kept as the north (if only we could plug it into the equations!) and then we must work and do mathematics with measured time, that is to say, the periodic motion of “objects” (whether mechanical or electromagnetic) within some portion of space that encapsulates it.

But is there any physical reason why forcefully you always have to hit on a relative measurement, different for each frame with a different state of motion? You can never know. Sometimes there may exist funny compensations of effects that lead to homogenous results, which are identical for different observers. If there is no dogmatic barrier, we cannot discard that this might eventually happen, unless of course there is a sound physical reason forbidding it.

That was the argument of classical relativity. If you take out from it Newton’s never clear assertion that there is an absolute time (did he refer to a real entity, which would be wrong, or to a mere intellectual concept, which would be legitimate, as a tool for discussion?), you find that it is the same model as SR, except for the belief that mechanical clocks give homogeneous measurements, no matter the state of motion of the holders. That is to say, when you say that two events happen simultaneously as measured by synchronized mechanical clocks, you can be certain that it is logically impossible that, right after their conclusion, one is and the other one is not yet real. Thus, no matter if you traveled from one to the other 1,000 times FLT, you could not prevent the second from happening. In other words, the idea is what has been discussed here: reality is one, it is the one fundamental thing, and you predict its behaviour by measurements, it is only that in classical relativity you combine for this purpose a relative space with purportedly homogeneous length and time measurements, while SR points out that your instruments, in practice, will also render relative results in terms of length and time, so you have to follow a more complicated route, a few more turnings, in order to reach the same target.

However, what are the practical reasons? All examples I’ve seen are based on light instruments, light clocks and light rods. I am clearly shown that, if you measure time and length with light and postulate that the speed of light is constant, you get the Lorentz Transformation, with which you catch reality and marry Cinderella. But which Cinderella? For sure, a light Cinderella. But also a mechanical one?

Well, at this stage, I am told that, if it were not so, the principle of relativity would not be respected and the universe would not fully conform to it. But for me the principle of relativity is just an intellectual trick, a slipper. The universe has no obligation to conform to it. It is valid if it is practical, if it catches reality and solves practical problems. And if it didn’t, under certain circumstances, and to the extent it didn’t, what should we do? We should still not dismiss it, but we should adapt either our measurement instruments or our laws of physics so that it works again. Again: if the slipper is not a valid mould any more, you simply have to reshape it.

Maybe that is what has been done and I have not realized it. But if it is so, please, experts on SR, tell me how it has been done: how have you shaped your instruments and formulas so that, even if they are made on light, they catch mechanical Cinderellas?

That is a sort of discussion that would be exciting. Let us forget aprioristic constraints about the principle of relativity and explain how we have shaped it (because we have shaped it, no doubt, that is what SR means versus Galilean relativity) so that it matches both light and mechanical Cinderellas, to the maximum degree of certainty.

Of course I do not expect to prove that anything is wrong with mainstream science. I am neither stupid nor a crankpot. I just think that this conceptual framework is right and hence it is more pedagogical, it serves to better explain the theory, most probably not to change it. The idea is: start talking about the physical configuration of your instruments and how they interact with the environment, note the differences between light and mechanical objects (which do exist, otherwise why SR?) and then explain to me how, in spite of those differences, SR has been carefully shaped in order to catch all aspects of reality.

For this purpose, I thought that both Althonhare’s and the duel example were a good stage. The question is very simple. Take for example the show of the duel. The signals for the duellers to shoot have been given through light, which does not take the motion of the source. If the duellers shoot with laser guns, it is clear that the match is fair. But if they received light signals and shot normal bullets with conventional arms, which do take the state of motion of the source, would it be still fair? It is clear that, if the ground observer uses the relativistic formula for the addition of velocities, he predicts that the duel is fair. But those are calculations. That doesn’t mean that this is what is going to happen on the train. What am I missing here? Can you please be pedagogical and explain this to me? Sincerely I have no hidden intention and just want to learn. If you want to continue your discussion and prefer not to take this question, am I then allowed to start a new thread without being labelled as a crankpot…? Thanks for your comments.
 
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  • #146
Saw said:
how have you shaped your instruments and formulas so that, even if they are made on light, they catch mechanical Cinderellas?

That's the whole point of special relativity. Maxwell's equations are of light. They did not obey the predictions of Galilean relativity between frames with constant relative velocity. The Michelson-Morley experiments showed that Maxwell's equations were the same in in frames with constant relative velocity, thus showing that the nature obeys Lorentzian relativity between frames with constant relative velocity. So the Michelson-Morley experiment caught a light Cinderella!

But it also caught a mechanical Cinderella! The Michelson-Morley apparatus was not made of light, but of the materials of mechanics, and mechanics was used to build it. It showed that we cannot have the laws of light obeying Lorentzian relativity, while having laws of mechanics obeying Galilean relativity.

So special relativity was invented to make all the laws of physics, not just of those light, consistent with Lorentzian relativity.
 
  • #147
Thanks, atyy. I would like to be very specific and focus on a concrete example, like Alhon's or the show of the duel. In the duel the problem is: Two light signals sent from the mid-point of the car reach the duellers, at the trail and the tip. If the duellers, as soon as they receive the signals, shoot laser guns, the duel is fair (see above for a justification). Likewise, if the signals are mechanical and the guns are also mechanical, no problem, either, the duel is fair. But my concern appears when we mix things (light signals with mechanical shots, for example).

I know the difference only arises at relativistic speeds. But why is speed important? That is a difference, no doubt: low speed is not the same as relativistic speed. But what is the logical link with the resolution of the case? Why and how does the difference become relevant for these purposes...?

A possible answer is as simple as this: as the MM experiment proved, that is the way it is, all laws of physics, mechanical and electromagnetic, are invariant under the LT. This is legitimate. The basis is an observation and the explanation is intuitively appealing. 99% of our lives is based on this combination observation/intuition that works. You don't need to convince me that this is right. I believe it!

I wanted, however, a slower approach, based on logic, step by step. I don't know how to do it and can only traverse that path guided by experts. Of course, this is only for whoever feels like doing the exercise.
 
  • #148
Hello saw.

Quote:-
---I know the difference only arises at relativistic speeds.---

Rerlativistic effects apply at all speeds. They are of course very much samaller at low speed and in everday situations can be ignored.

Matheinste.
 
  • #149
matheinste said:
Rerlativistic effects apply at all speeds. They are of course very much samaller at low speed and in everday situations can be ignored.

Thanks a lot, for the precision, Matheinste. The term I used was of course wrong. I meant what you state, that I to say, that the difference is so small at non-relativistic speeds, that we don’t realize it is there, we don’t perceive it. I will soon explain in more detail what I meant. But any other correction is welcome.
 
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  • #150
I correct myself a little more. Let us continue focused on the example. The referees have dissenting views as to the simultaneity of the two events, arrival of the light signals to the Front and the Back dueller.

Who is right? The author’s explanation (adapting the names) was as follows:

“Einstein’s unexpected answer is that they both are (…) they simply have different perspectives on the same sequence of events. The shocking thing that Einstein revealed is that their different perspectives yield different but equally valid claims of what events happen at the same time. Of course, at everyday speeds like that of the train, the disparity is small –Saw claims that Front got the light less than a trillionth of a second after Back- but were the train moving faster, near light speed, the time difference would be substantial”

We have already discarded that the different views as to simultaneity imply different views as to the fairness of the duel. In spite of that discrepancy, the duel was fair. This has been the gist of this thread. SR does not put into question what is “fundamental”, i.e., in my view, the agreement on events and the subsequent practical solution of the problem.

Thus the concept of the relativity of simultaneity appears as a discrepancy in the outcome of measurements, which nevertheless (if combined with other coordinate-dependent values, equally relative, that are necessary for calculation purposes) does not generate a discrepancy on the occurrence of the events of the story.

In other words, relativity of simultaneity is necessary for predicting what may happen, but has no impact itself on what may happen.

If the train were moving at relativistic speeds, near the speed of light, the disparity would be much more relevant, but its meaning would be the same: we would find a higher quantitative discrepancy in the measurements, but the story would not change.

So the difference is “perceived” in the discrepancy that I, as referee on the ground, appreciate between the readings of clocks situated in my ground frame, when the signals reach Back and Front. It is not that Back and Front perceive any difference in their clocks, since of course for them their time is normal, it does not dilate and there’s no lack of simultaneity.
 
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