cscott
- 778
- 1
With the equation \frac{(-1)^{x+1}}{2\cdot2^{x - 1}} can I just use the argument that 2^(x-1) will reach infinity faster than (-1)^(n+ 1) so the limit as x -> inf is 0? Because I don't see what I can do the equation to make it more "obvious".