clamtrox
- 938
- 9
Suppose I define sets D_n = \lbrace x \in [0,1] | x has an n-digit long binary expansion \rbrace.
Now consider \bigcup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} D_n. This is just the set of Dyadic rationals and therefore countable for sure.
Now for the question: is this equal to \bigcup_{n = 0}^{\infty} D_n? Clearly we have D_1 \subset D_2 \subset ... \subset D_n so I am tempted to think of this as \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} D_n. If I am allowed to take the limit, then it would seem that \bigcup_{n = 0}^{\infty} D_n = [0,1]. Where am I doing a naughty physicist mistake?
Now consider \bigcup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} D_n. This is just the set of Dyadic rationals and therefore countable for sure.
Now for the question: is this equal to \bigcup_{n = 0}^{\infty} D_n? Clearly we have D_1 \subset D_2 \subset ... \subset D_n so I am tempted to think of this as \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} D_n. If I am allowed to take the limit, then it would seem that \bigcup_{n = 0}^{\infty} D_n = [0,1]. Where am I doing a naughty physicist mistake?