Line integral of the second kind

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Homework Statement


Given the polar curve [itex]r = 3\sqrt{\cos{2\varphi}},\ -\frac{\pi}{4}\leq\varphi\leq\frac{\pi}{4}[/itex]. Find the area of the surface enclosed by the curve using line integral of the second kind.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


According to Green's theorem: if [itex]F(x,y)[/itex] and [itex]G(x,y)[/itex] are continuous on a smooth closed graph ([itex]r(\varphi)[/itex] in this case), then [itex]\oint_L F(x,y)\mathrm{d}x + G(x,y)\mathrm{d}y = \iint_D G_x(x,y) - F_y(x,y)\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y[/itex].

The textbook, however, is very ineloquent as to what exactly [itex]F[/itex] and [itex]G[/itex] are and there are no examples given with polar curves. Do I have to parameterize the curve? I don't understand. :wideeyed:
 
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nuuskur said:
According to Green's theorem: if F(x,y)F(x,y) and G(x,y)G(x,y) are continuous on a smooth closed graph (r(φ)r(\varphi) in this case), then ∮LF(x,y)dx+G(x,y)dy=∬DGx(x,y)−Fy(x,y)dxdy\oint_L F(x,y)\mathrm{d}x + G(x,y)\mathrm{d}y = \iint_D G_x(x,y) - F_y(x,y)\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y.
This looks like a slightly offbeat version of Stokes' theorem.
upload_2015-5-11_18-31-13.png
This is the curve. Observe:
  1. x = r*cos(φ), y = r*sin(φ)
  2. sin(-φ) = -sin(φ), so the part above the x-axis is equal to the part below
  3. You do not need any fancy theorems to do this integral.
 
nuuskur said:

Homework Statement


Given the polar curve [itex]r = 3\sqrt{\cos{2\varphi}},\ -\frac{\pi}{4}\leq\varphi\leq\frac{\pi}{4}[/itex]. Find the area of the surface enclosed by the curve using line integral of the second kind.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


According to Green's theorem: if [itex]F(x,y)[/itex] and [itex]G(x,y)[/itex] are continuous on a smooth closed graph ([itex]r(\varphi)[/itex] in this case), then [itex]\oint_L F(x,y)\mathrm{d}x + G(x,y)\mathrm{d}y = \iint_D G_x(x,y) - F_y(x,y)\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y[/itex].

The textbook, however, is very ineloquent as to what exactly [itex]F[/itex] and [itex]G[/itex] are and there are no examples given with polar curves. Do I have to parameterize the curve? I don't understand. :wideeyed:

The area is ##\iint_D 1 \, dx dy##, so you need to devise ##F(x,y), G(x,y)## that satisfy ##G_x - F_y = 1 ## everywhere (or, at least, inside the curve). Can you think of some convenient functions ##F,G## that have that property?
 
Find the area of the surface enclosed by the curve using line integral of the second kind.

The area of the region is what you mean.

The area of a polar region ##r = f(\theta)## is given by:

$$\frac{1}{2} \int_a^b f^2(\theta) \space d\theta$$

This will allow you to solve the question quite easily as you already have the limits.

On a side note, I think you are referring to the reverse implication of Green's theorem, which allows you to compute areas. Since the area of a region ##D## is given by:

$$\text{Area}(D) = \iint_D \space dA$$

We wish to choose the functions ##P## and ##Q## satisfying Green's theorem such that:

$$\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial P}{\partial y} = 1$$

There are several possibilities for choosing these functions, which all lead to the same result for the area of a region ##D##. Let's choose ##P = -\frac{1}{2}y## and ##Q = \frac{1}{2}x##. The following result can then be deduced directly from Green's theorem:

$$\text{Area}(D) = \frac{1}{2} \oint_C xdy - y dx = \iint_D \space dA$$

If you were to "go backwards" from ##r = f(\theta)## by using polar co-ordinates, you could also use the above result to get the exact same answer, i.e:

$$\text{Area}(D) = \frac{1}{2} \oint_C xdy - y dx = \frac{1}{2} \int_a^b f^2(\theta) \space d\theta = \iint_D \space dA$$
 
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Would the area then be
[tex]A = \int_{ -\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \int_0^{r(\varphi)} r\mathrm{d}r\mathrm{d}\varphi[/tex]
Edit: Yes, it is, thanks, I get it now.
 
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