Line integral of the second kind

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the area enclosed by the polar curve r = 3√(cos(2φ)) for -π/4 ≤ φ ≤ π/4 using the line integral of the second kind, with references to Green's theorem and its application in polar coordinates.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the application of Green's theorem and question the appropriate parameterization of the curve. There is discussion about the functions F and G needed for the theorem, as well as alternative methods for calculating the area.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered potential functions for F and G that could satisfy the area calculation, while others have suggested simpler approaches to the integral. There is an ongoing exploration of different interpretations of the problem and methods to arrive at the area.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the lack of examples in the textbook regarding polar curves and express uncertainty about the parameterization process. There is also mention of the need to clarify the definitions of F and G in the context of the problem.

nuuskur
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Homework Statement


Given the polar curve [itex]r = 3\sqrt{\cos{2\varphi}},\ -\frac{\pi}{4}\leq\varphi\leq\frac{\pi}{4}[/itex]. Find the area of the surface enclosed by the curve using line integral of the second kind.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


According to Green's theorem: if [itex]F(x,y)[/itex] and [itex]G(x,y)[/itex] are continuous on a smooth closed graph ([itex]r(\varphi)[/itex] in this case), then [itex]\oint_L F(x,y)\mathrm{d}x + G(x,y)\mathrm{d}y = \iint_D G_x(x,y) - F_y(x,y)\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y[/itex].

The textbook, however, is very ineloquent as to what exactly [itex]F[/itex] and [itex]G[/itex] are and there are no examples given with polar curves. Do I have to parameterize the curve? I don't understand. :wideeyed:
 
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nuuskur said:
According to Green's theorem: if F(x,y)F(x,y) and G(x,y)G(x,y) are continuous on a smooth closed graph (r(φ)r(\varphi) in this case), then ∮LF(x,y)dx+G(x,y)dy=∬DGx(x,y)−Fy(x,y)dxdy\oint_L F(x,y)\mathrm{d}x + G(x,y)\mathrm{d}y = \iint_D G_x(x,y) - F_y(x,y)\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y.
This looks like a slightly offbeat version of Stokes' theorem.
upload_2015-5-11_18-31-13.png
This is the curve. Observe:
  1. x = r*cos(φ), y = r*sin(φ)
  2. sin(-φ) = -sin(φ), so the part above the x-axis is equal to the part below
  3. You do not need any fancy theorems to do this integral.
 
nuuskur said:

Homework Statement


Given the polar curve [itex]r = 3\sqrt{\cos{2\varphi}},\ -\frac{\pi}{4}\leq\varphi\leq\frac{\pi}{4}[/itex]. Find the area of the surface enclosed by the curve using line integral of the second kind.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


According to Green's theorem: if [itex]F(x,y)[/itex] and [itex]G(x,y)[/itex] are continuous on a smooth closed graph ([itex]r(\varphi)[/itex] in this case), then [itex]\oint_L F(x,y)\mathrm{d}x + G(x,y)\mathrm{d}y = \iint_D G_x(x,y) - F_y(x,y)\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y[/itex].

The textbook, however, is very ineloquent as to what exactly [itex]F[/itex] and [itex]G[/itex] are and there are no examples given with polar curves. Do I have to parameterize the curve? I don't understand. :wideeyed:

The area is ##\iint_D 1 \, dx dy##, so you need to devise ##F(x,y), G(x,y)## that satisfy ##G_x - F_y = 1 ## everywhere (or, at least, inside the curve). Can you think of some convenient functions ##F,G## that have that property?
 
Find the area of the surface enclosed by the curve using line integral of the second kind.

The area of the region is what you mean.

The area of a polar region ##r = f(\theta)## is given by:

$$\frac{1}{2} \int_a^b f^2(\theta) \space d\theta$$

This will allow you to solve the question quite easily as you already have the limits.

On a side note, I think you are referring to the reverse implication of Green's theorem, which allows you to compute areas. Since the area of a region ##D## is given by:

$$\text{Area}(D) = \iint_D \space dA$$

We wish to choose the functions ##P## and ##Q## satisfying Green's theorem such that:

$$\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial P}{\partial y} = 1$$

There are several possibilities for choosing these functions, which all lead to the same result for the area of a region ##D##. Let's choose ##P = -\frac{1}{2}y## and ##Q = \frac{1}{2}x##. The following result can then be deduced directly from Green's theorem:

$$\text{Area}(D) = \frac{1}{2} \oint_C xdy - y dx = \iint_D \space dA$$

If you were to "go backwards" from ##r = f(\theta)## by using polar co-ordinates, you could also use the above result to get the exact same answer, i.e:

$$\text{Area}(D) = \frac{1}{2} \oint_C xdy - y dx = \frac{1}{2} \int_a^b f^2(\theta) \space d\theta = \iint_D \space dA$$
 
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Would the area then be
[tex]A = \int_{ -\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \int_0^{r(\varphi)} r\mathrm{d}r\mathrm{d}\varphi[/tex]
Edit: Yes, it is, thanks, I get it now.
 
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