MHB Linear Dependence in \mathbb{R}^4?

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In the discussion on linear dependence in \mathbb{R}^4, it is established that if the set \{\textbf{v}_1, \textbf{v}_2, \textbf{v}_3\} is linearly dependent, then adding a fourth vector \textbf{v}_4 does not change that dependence, making \{\textbf{v}_1, \textbf{v}_2, \textbf{v}_3, \textbf{v}_4\} also linearly dependent. The conversation highlights that if \textbf{v}_4 is not in the span of the first three vectors, the overall set can still be dependent due to the existing linear dependence among the first three. Additionally, the distinction between linear dependence and independence is clarified, emphasizing that a linearly independent set cannot contain a linearly dependent subset. Misunderstandings about the definitions of linear dependence and independence are addressed, particularly regarding the relationship between vectors in different dimensions. Overall, the discussion reinforces fundamental concepts of linear algebra regarding vector relationships in \mathbb{R}^4.
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Question:
If [math]\textbf{v}_1,...,\textbf{v}_4[/math] are in [math]\mathbb{R}^4[/math] and [math]\{\textbf{v}_1, \textbf{v}_2, \textbf{v}_3\}[/math] is linearly dependent, is [math]\{\textbf{v}_1, \textbf{v}_2, \textbf{v}_3, \textbf{v}_4\}[/math] also linearly dependent?

My Solution:
http://s29.postimg.org/4wvwjlkqd/Linearly_Independent_Sets.png
 
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bwpbruce said:
No, it's only linearly independent if $c_1 = c_2 = c_3 = c_4 = 0$. I don't know if your intent is to help or to confuse further. If your linear algebra isn't up to par, then you shouldn't make contributions such as these.

That's a little rude. Since I own this site, I think I'll make contributions when I wish. My comment was not to confuse.

My comment was aiming towards this. If $\textbf{v}_4 \notin \text{Span}( \textbf{v}_1, \textbf{v}_2,\textbf{v}_3)$ then by definition $c_1 \textbf{v}_1+c_2 \textbf{v}_2+ c_3 \textbf{v}_3+ \ne c_4 \textbf{v}_4$, thus $c_1 \textbf{v}_1+c_2 \textbf{v}_2+ c_3 \textbf{v}_3- c_4\textbf{v}_4 \ne 0$ and they are in fact linearly independent but this isn't correct now that I think about it because $c_4$ can just be 0.

If you state that $c_4=0$ then your logic makes sense. The proof doesn't require two cases then and can be done as follows:

Assume $c_1 \textbf{v}_1+c_2 \textbf{v}_2+ c_3 \textbf{v}_3=0$ for some combination, not all 0, of $c_i$ by definition of linear dependence.

Then $c_1 \textbf{v}_1+c_2 \textbf{v}_2+ c_3 \textbf{v}_3+ 0\textbf{v}_4 = 0$ thus $(\textbf{v}_1, \textbf{v}_2, \textbf{v}_3, \textbf{v}_4)$ is linearly dependent.
 
Your proof is perfectly fine to me, if a little opaque and long-winded. Intuitively, if $(v_1, v_2, v_3)$ are linearly dependent then adding any number of additional vectors doesn't change that: you can still express $v_1$ as a linear combination of $v_2, v_3$ and all the extra vectors. The fact that some coefficients are zero is immaterial, as long as at least one is nonzero, which is guaranteed by the assumption that $(v_1, v_2, v_3)$ are linearly dependent to begin with.

Another way to think of it is that every subset of a linearly independent set of vectors is linearly independent (the proof is exactly the same as above, simply add zero coefficients to show linear independence is preserved). Ergo, if you have a linearly dependent subset then your set can't be linearly independent. I hope that clears it up.
 
How do you explain this then:
View attachment 3787
{$\textbf{u,v}$} is linearly dependent, yet they seem to be saying that {$\textbf{u,v,w}$} will be linearly independent if $\textbf{w}$ is not in span$\{\textbf{u,v}\}$
 

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bwpbruce said:
How do you explain this then:
View attachment 3787
{$\textbf{u,v}$} is linearly dependent, yet they seem to be saying that {$\textbf{u,v,w}$} will be linearly independent if $\textbf{w}$ is not in span$\{\textbf{u,v}\}$

The set $(u, v)$ doesn't look linearly dependent to me in this picture. If they were linearly dependent then there would be a nontrivial solution to $t_1 u + t_2 v = 0$, that is, $u = cv$ for some nonzero scalar $c$. Here $u$ and $v$ are very clearly not coplanar since they span a plane of dimension 2 (and hence form a basis of that plane since they span it, and that basis is necessarily linearly independent).
 
Explain again how $\textbf{u,v}$ are not co-planar again? I didn't understand it the first time you explained. They appear to be co-planar to me. You only need two dimensions to create a plane BTW.
 
bwpbruce said:
Explain again how $\textbf{u,v}$ are not co-planar again? I didn't understand it the first time you explained. They appear to be co-planar to me. You only need two dimensions to create a plane BTW.

Sorry, that was my mistake. I meant colinear, as per the linear dependence condition $u = cv$. What I mean is that they are not linearly dependent because one cannot be expressed as a linear combination of the other. Can you express $u$ as a (nontrivial) linear combination of $v$ (or vice versa)? If not, then they are linearly independent. (you can't, but you should try anyway)
 
You at least helped me figure out what it was I was mis-understanding about this. I thank you for that.
 

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