AxiomOfChoice
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I have a question: If x\in X is a normed vector space, X^* is the space of bounded linear functionals on X, and f(x) = 0 for every f\in X^*, is it true that x = 0? I'm reasonably confident this has to be the case, but why? The converse is obviously true, but I don't see why there couldn't be an example of a normed space for which all the functionals in X^* are zero at some other value of x...
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