Long planet and Galileo thought experiment

  • #51
Jorrie said:
For a static local observer, the 2 times weight should translate to twice the acceleration (it's twice the force, after all).

No. If you dropped two balls side by side instead of one does that mean that they will accelerate faster? Why not, they are twice the weight of one ball? This is what the principle of equivalence says: the gravitational acceleration is in no way dependent on the weight.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #52
my_wan said:
No. If you dropped two balls side by side instead of one does that mean that they will accelerate faster? Why not, they are twice the weight of one ball? This is what the principle of equivalence says: the gravitational acceleration is in no way dependent on the weight.

If you check #43 and #47 again, you'll notice that this not the experiment wer'e talking about. It's dropping a 1kg mass on Earth versus dropping it on a planet with twice the surface gravity.

-J
 
  • #53
kev said:
General relativity requires that the spinning gyroscope (that has allmost all its constituent elements moving horizontally) should fall faster than the non spinning gyroscope.

This experiment was actually carried out in this paper. http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/gr-qc/pdf/0111/0111069v1.pdf

They got a null result. Both gyroscopes fell at the same rate. So either General Relativity is wrong, or the interpretation of general relativity (that an object with horizontal motion falls faster than an object without) is wrong... or the experiment was carried out incorrectly.

Hmm... this is as close to a 'infinitesimal region' of space we can get. If the spacetime curvature is negligible, the differences should also be negligible. I do not think GR predicts that there should then be a difference.

I'm ready to concede to JesseM that the effects of GR in the case of horizontal movement only show up over extended regions of space, where spatial curvature cannot be ignored (especially in the horizontal direction). If you make the size of the gravitating body approach infinity, there will be no effect even over large regions of space. Remember that with high linear horizontal speed, the horizontal movement is many orders larger than the vertical movement - that's where the gyroscope case is different.

Pervect's equations and my interpretation are probably correct for relatively large areas in comparison with the massive body, like orbits or portions of orbits. The equations give the correct relativistic orbits, but should be used with care on small scales.

I think the buoyancy problem is something quite different. The Rickard M. Jonsson paper (http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/arxiv/pdf/0708/0708.2488v1.pdf) that you referenced clearly shows that even the 'submarine effect' reverses when you're are outside the photon radius (3GM/c^2) in a 'real spherical ocean' - meaning there is spatial curvature.

-J
 
Last edited:
  • #54
Hi all,

Not got much time. Thanks for the comments.

I was wondering if there is a simple Rindler spacetime solution to all this? I think it is supposed to handle these sort of conditions.
 
  • #55
Jorrie said:
If you check #43 and #47 again, you'll notice that this not the experiment wer'e talking about. It's dropping a 1kg mass on Earth versus dropping it on a planet with twice the surface gravity.

-J

Oh, failed to notice. Your response was quiet reasonable then.
 
Last edited:
  • #56
Gargantua violates the EP?

Jorrie said:
Let's use Kip Thorne's "Gargantua" from his "Black holes and time warps", sporting 15 trillion solar masses and set up the lab at 1.0001 Rs (like Kip), where the g-force is still 10g, but the tidal forces are negligible. The horizon circumference is 29 light years, so our test arena size should also be negligible by comparison. Since Gargantua is spinning very slowly, the spacetime around it is almost perfectly Schwarzschild and pervect's equations should be valid in Schwarzschild coordinates, i.e. by an observer at 'infinity'.

With the event horizon practically flat underneath us and the gravitational field practically homogeneous, set up Cartesian coordinates with the x-axis normal to the radial and the y-axis parallel to it. We can now determine the instantaneous Cartesian acceleration when a ball is dropped without and with horizontal velocity (must be far below the orbital velocity, which is v_o= 0.707c in this case). Corrective note: the v_o = 0.707c is an error; there are no orbits at r = 1.0001Rs. One can use any local velocity < c.
...

Eq. 5
<br /> \frac{d^2 r}{d\tau^2} = -\frac {m}{r^2(1-2m/r)^{1.5}}\left(1 - \frac {2m}{r} + 2r^2v_\phi^2\right) <br />

Since nobody raised an issue on this equation (based on pervect's derived radial acceleration), I did put in some numbers and was quite surprised! Firstly, I rewrote it in local Cartesian (x,y) coordinates (as defined in the above quote):

Eq. 6
<br /> <br /> \frac{d^2 y}{d\tau^2} = -\frac {m}{y^2(1-2m/y)^{1.5}}\left(1 - \frac {2m}{y} + 2(1-2m/y)v_x^2\right) <br /> <br />

The last term is multiplied by (1-2m/y) to convert the local horizontal velocity (v_x) back to the Schwarzschild tangential velocity rv_\phi required by the quoted equation 5.

This acceleration was numerically integrated over one second, starting at y=1.0001Rs, first for a static particle (v_x = 0) being dropped and then for Kev's particle with v_x = 0.8c (horizontal) velocity, over the same drop in the static x,y frame. I found that the first particle dropped a vertically height of 51 meters in the one second, at a practically constant acceleration of -101.717 m/s^2 (~10g, as Kip used). It obviously reached a speed (v_y) of -101.717 m/s in the one second, not relativistic at all.

The particle moving at v_x = 0.8c dropped the 51 meters in 0.66 seconds, also at a practically constant acceleration of -231.916 m/s^2, reaching a vertical speed (v_y) of -153.06 m/s, still not relativistic. The significance of this is that one can ignore the effect of v_y on dtau and on the vertical acceleration. This particle traveled a horizontal distance of some 158,400 km (0.53 ls), insignificant relative to the 29 ly circumference black hole. We are still in an insignificantly small region relative to the hole (practically infinitesimal).

So, if these calculations are correct, Galileo was wrong - a horizontally moving particle does fall faster than the particle dropped from rest. Before everyone jumps in and flame the calculations, consider this: the test is performed at r=1.0001Rs, far inside the "photon radius", where no stable orbits are possible and any increase in tangential velocity (kinetic energy) drags the object faster into the hole. Qualitatively, there is no problem here - horizontal velocity makes things fall faster in that region and it becomes more severe the closer to the event horizon, where even light's trajectory becomes purely vertical.

Quantitatively, doing the experiment at the photon radius r = 3m with v_x = 1 indeed gives a circular orbit with a gravitational acceleration of -2.349 m/s^2. At r=4m, using v_x = 0.707, the orbit is circular with a gravitational acceleration of -0.82 m/s^2, corresponding to the local centripetal acceleration for a circular orbit at that radius (ca = v_x^2/(r-2). I also found that the increase factor in the acceleration did not change if I increased the mass of black hole without limit. Sobering…

This result is probably controversial and may be wrong, but I'll be very interested to get comments on the validity of the equations for the scenario described, rather than just that it violates the equivalence principle. :wink:

-J
 
Last edited:
  • #57
Gargantua correction

Jorrie said:
Quantitatively, doing the experiment at the photon radius r = 3m with v_x = 1 indeed gives a circular orbit with a gravitational acceleration of -2.349 m/s^2. At r=4m, using v_x = 0.707, the orbit is circular with a gravitational acceleration of -0.82 m/s^2, corresponding to the local centripetal acceleration for a circular orbit at that radius (ca = v_x^2/(r-2).

There obviously cannot be circular orbits in the local Cartesian frame, just curved paths that represent a tiny portion of the Schwarzschild orbits at those radii. It's better to say that a local Cartesian centripetal acceleration of ca = -v_x^2/(r-2m) relative to the center of Gargantua would have produced the partial orbits as quoted above.

(The previous centripetal equation has a typo, but I cannot edit the original any longer, so I had to post again - my apologies)

-J
 
Last edited:
  • #58
Equivalence principle violated or not?

I'm a newly registered but long time reader of PF and has followed this conversation with interest, but it seems to have ground to a halt now. This made me register to try and get closure on the matter. Recapping some of the discussion between JesseM, Jorrie and others:
Jorrie said:
It would be interesting to know what would happen to Galileo's cannon balls if they were dropped near the event horizon of an arbitrarily large black hole, so that the region that we measure becomes arbitrarily small in comparison. I have a hunch that the horizontally moving ball will drop faster, as observed by a static observer ('hovering' his spaceship there), because I think pervect's equations and Schwarzschild geometry says that.
JesseM said:
But that would seem to be a clear violation of the equivalence principle--don't you agree the EP says that if you pick a sufficiently small region of a larger curved spacetime so that the curvature is negligible in that region, than the laws of physics for a freefalling observer in this region should reduce to those of an inertial observer in SR? And don't you agree this would apply to picking a small region that includes the event horizon?
In a reply to Kev on the spinning gyroscopes that was dropped, Jorrie then apparently accepted JesseM's view:
Jorrie said:
I'm ready to concede to JesseM that the effects of GR in the case of horizontal movement only show up over extended regions of space, where spatial curvature cannot be ignored (especially in the horizontal direction). If you make the size of the gravitating body approach infinity, there will be no effect even over large regions of space. Remember that with high linear horizontal speed, the horizontal movement is many orders larger than the vertical movement - that's where the gyroscope case is different.
However, later Jorrie responded with a detailed calculation, based on, but not quite equivalent to the 'pervect' equation that he quoted and apparently changed his mind:
Jorrie said:
So, if these calculations are correct, Galileo was wrong - a horizontally moving particle does fall faster than the particle dropped from rest. Before everyone jumps in and flame the calculations, consider this: the test is performed at r=1.0001Rs, far inside the "photon radius", where no stable orbits are possible and any increase in tangential velocity (kinetic energy) drags the object faster into the hole. Qualitatively, there is no problem here - horizontal velocity makes things fall faster in that region and it becomes more severe the closer to the event horizon, where even light's trajectory becomes purely vertical.
This left me totally confused. Is the equivalence principle violated in infinitesimal regions of spacetime near the horizon of a very large black hole, or not?
 
  • #59
Hi DukeL,

During the course of this thread I have come to the conclusion that the equivalence principle is a "one way relationship". While an observer in a closed artificially accelerated lab could not be certain that he is not experiencing acceleration due to the proximity of a massive gravitational body, the reverse is not always true. An observer in a large lab that is stationary with respect to a large gravitational body can detect differences from the artificial acceleration due to tidal influences. Those differences are minimised by considering an infinesimal region. However, it is questionable whether it is possible to find a sufficiently small region within the massive gravitational curvature found near the event horizon of a black hole if there are other limitations such as the Planck length (if that is a real physical limitation of nature). Such a violation of the EP would probably not be a fatal wound for GR if we consider the "one way" relationship I mentioned before. It is clear that on large scales the EP is violated in GR in the reverse direction. I am as interested as you, to know if the EP is violated in an infinitesimal region near the event horizon ;)
 
  • #60
DukeL said:
I'm a newly registered but long time reader of PF and has followed this conversation with interest, but it seems to have ground to a halt now. This made me register to try and get closure on the matter. Recapping some of the discussion between JesseM, Jorrie and others: ...

This left me totally confused. Is the equivalence principle violated in infinitesimal regions of spacetime near the horizon of a very large black hole, or not?

Hi DukeL, welcome as a registered member of PF now!

I think the answer lurks in the difficulty of defining an 'infinitesimal frame' in which to perform the 'Gargantua experiment' that I described (as Kev has also pointed to for the event horizon). My statement: "So, if these calculations are correct, Galileo was wrong ..." did not say the equivalence principle is wrong, but rather that any experiment he could have performed on Earth with relativistic speed particles would not have been in confined to an 'infinitesimal frame'.

One has to have a reasonably long horizontal separation in order to have any measurable drop and especially a measurable difference in drop time. Then spatial curvature bedevils the test - i.e., it is no longer a pure SR problem and the equivalence principle only applies approximately. Only in the OP's fictional "very long, flat Earth" (essentially infinitely large) can the EP be applied directly in this type of test.

Anyway, since I stand by my result, that's the only conclusion that I could come to.

-J
 
  • #61
Jorrie said:
One has to have a reasonably long horizontal separation in order to have any measurable drop and especially a measurable difference in drop time. Then spatial curvature bedevils the test - i.e., it is no longer a pure SR problem and the equivalence principle only applies approximately. Only in the OP's fictional "very long, flat Earth" (essentially infinitely large) can the EP be applied directly in this type of test.

In your calculating post above, you said that when you increased the size of the black hole without limit, the acceleration with a 0.8c horizontal velocity remained about 2.3 times the 'straight drop' acceleration. This does not correlate with your "essentially infinitely large" statement above, not so?

I think part of the problem is that your calculation in a Cartesian frame does not work in the Schwarzschild spacetime around a practical black hole of any size.
 
  • #62
kev said:
During the course of this thread I have come to the conclusion that the equivalence principle is a "one way relationship". While an observer in a closed artificially accelerated lab could not be certain that he is not experiencing acceleration due to the proximity of a massive gravitational body, the reverse is not always true.

Hi kev, I guess if a lab is really small and the massive body is really big, neither observer would be able to say for sure which is which. If the hole is arbitrarily big, doesn't the tidal forces at the horizon become arbitrarily small in a small lab?
 
  • #63
DukeL said:
In your calculating post above, you said that when you increased the size of the black hole without limit, the acceleration with a 0.8c horizontal velocity remained about 2.3 times the 'straight drop' acceleration. This does not correlate with your "essentially infinitely large" statement above, not so?

Hi DukeL.

Yep, but I think the problem is that one cannot practically "increase the size of the black hole without limit" in physical calculations (they blow up). I suppose one can do it in the formulas, which will then give you a uniform gravitational field and the equivalence principle applies.

I think part of the problem is that your calculation in a Cartesian frame does not work in the Schwarzschild spacetime around a practical black hole of any size.

Agreed, but I have checked this roughly and the error introduced is about 4% in the time difference, relatively small compared to the 33% time difference between the two different 'drops'.

I'm pretty sure (but haven't checked) that if you do a full relativistic orbit calculation at r = 1.0001Rs, with and without d\phi/d\tau = 0.8c/r angular starting velocity, you will roughly get the same drop time difference (say for a decrease in r of one meter).

-J
 
Last edited:
  • #64
Jorrie said:
I'm pretty sure (but haven't checked) that if you do a full relativistic orbit calculation at r = 1.0001Rs, with and without d\phi/d\tau = 0.8c/r angular starting velocity, you will roughly get the same drop time difference (say for a decrease in r of one meter).

Jorrie, I've tried to get my head around this by taking pervect's original derivation, simplified for zero radial velocity, i.e.

<br /> <br /> \frac{d^2 r}{dt^2} = \left( r-2\,m \right) \left(v_{\phi}^{2}-{\frac {m}{{r}^{3}}} \right) <br /> <br />

Looking at it, the angular velocity v_{\phi} of the object can only have any significant influence if v_{\phi}^2 it is in the same order of mag. as m/r^3, because they are subtracted.

Using your 15 trillion suns black hole at radial range r=1.0001Rs and v_{\phi}= 0.8/(r-Rs), I get the following values:

v_{\phi}^2\approx 10^{-38} and m/r^3 \approx 10^{-34} \gg v_{\phi}^2 (in geometric units meter^{-2}).

If I haven't made any calculation errors, this seems to rule out any significant influence of the angular velocity on the radial acceleration in your example, casting doubt on your calculations.
 
Last edited:
  • #65
In the example of the accelerating rocket experiencing constant proper born rigid acceleration as plotted on a Minkowski diagram, the acceleration experienced by the observers is proportional to 1/R. Normally gravitaitional acceleration is proportional to 1/R^2. I have recently discovered that the gravity perpendicular to a an infinitely long cylnder attenuates proportional to 1/R. This is an interesting coincidence and adds to the possibility of the spacetime of the cylindrical gravitational body being an exact equivalent of the accelerating rocket. It would be interesting if someone could figure out the gravitational potential of the cylinder and what implications that has to adapting the Schwarzschild metric from the spherical to the cylindrical case.
 
  • #66
kev said:
I have recently discovered that the gravity perpendicular to a an infinitely long cylinder attenuates proportional to 1/R. This is an interesting coincidence and adds to the possibility of the spacetime of the cylindrical gravitational body being an exact equivalent of the accelerating rocket.

I guess this is correct for the spatial dimension orthogonal to the acceleration vector and parallel to the cylinder's long axis, but not in the other orthogonal dimension (orthogonal also to the cylinder's axis), where the spatial curvature remains. In the rocket's case, there is no curvature in either of the two orthogonal directions.

-J
 
  • #67
Jorrie said:
I guess this is correct for the spatial dimension orthogonal to the acceleration vector and parallel to the cylinder's long axis, but not in the other orthogonal dimension (orthogonal also to the cylinder's axis), where the spatial curvature remains. In the rocket's case, there is no curvature in either of the two orthogonal directions.

-J

I see your point and this presents the equivalence principle with a problem because there appears to be no (even hypothetical) gravitational body that can duplicate all the measurements made inside the cabin of the accelerating spaceship.

The gravity orthogonal to an infinite flat slab does not diminish at any distance from the slab so we can not use that hypothetical gravitational body either.

How do we save the equivalence principle?
 
  • #68
kev said:
The gravity orthogonal to an infinite flat slab does not diminish at any distance from the slab so we can not use that hypothetical gravitational body either.

How do we save the equivalence principle?

I guess a very large spherical body does approximate the uniform gravitational field that corresponds to the equivalence principle as far as tidal effects are concerned. I suppose even the inverse square law would be very difficult to observe in a small lab.

I do not think there is a body representing a pure uniform gravitational field - it does not even help to make it spherically 'infinite', because then the gravitational field will be the same everywhere, like for the 'infinite' square slab - actually, you can't be outside an infinite 3D thing, so there might be no gravitational effects, not so?

-J
 
Last edited:
  • #69
DukeL said:
If I haven't made any calculation errors, this seems to rule out any significant influence of the angular velocity on the radial acceleration in your example, casting doubt on your calculations.

Hi DukeL.

It does not look like you made any computational errors, but I'm still battling to convert what you wrote (for the Schw. coordinate frame) to the local frame. Will come back to you later...

-J
 
  • #70
Hi again DukeL.
Jorrie said:
It does not look like you made any computational errors, but I'm still battling to convert what you wrote (for the Schw. coordinate frame) to the local frame. Will come back to you later...
It appears that is not necessary to worry about the conversion between Schwarzschild and local coordinates in the solution, after all. The issue lies in the centripetal acceleration inherent in polar coordinates, e.g., one cannot say that an object moving with d\phi/dt &gt; 0, but with dr/dt=0 has zero acceleration. One can quite legally replace the polar coordinates with rectangular x,y,z coordinates and see that, as I indicated here:
Jorrie said:
To convert this to a Cartesian coordinate acceleration, we firstly have to add the negative centripetal acceleration rv_\phi^2 (because it is inherent in spherical coordinates): (Note should have read -rv_\phi^2)

Eq. 3
<br /> \frac{d^2 r}{dt^2} = \left( r-2\,m \right) \left(v_{\phi}^{2}-{\frac {m}{{r}^{3}}} \right) - r^2v_\phi^2 = -\frac {m}{r^2}\,-\, 2 mv_\phi^2\,+\, \frac {2m^2}{r^3} <br />(Note, the r^2v_\phi^2 should have read rv_\phi^2)

with a final, most useful form:

Eq. 4
<br /> \frac{d^2 r}{dt^2} = -\frac {m}{r^2}\left(1 - \frac {2m}{r} + 2r^2v_\phi^2\right) <br />

Strictly, one should also replace r with y and rv_{\phi} with v_x=dx/dt, the horizontal velocity, but that this is not necessary to see the effect that we are after.
Eq. 4 should hence be written as:

<br /> \frac{d^2 y}{dt^2} = -\frac {m}{y^2}\left(1 - \frac {2m}{y} + 2v_x^2\right) <br />

I found the following acceleration values for the case that you calculated for the distant observer's frame:

\frac{d^2 r}{dt^2}= -1.13\times 10^{-21}

-rv_\phi^2 = -1.45\times 10^{-21}

\frac{d^2 y}{dt^2} = -2.58\times 10^{-21}

All in geometric units of meter^{-1}, indicating the source and magnitude of the increase in acceleration in the presence of angular velocity. Does this make any sense?

-J
 
Last edited:
  • #71
Rather than attempt to go through this long thread, I'd like to suggest a better model of a "flat planet" - an accelerating spaceship. In particular, I mean the metric I describe
here.

It should be reasonably clear that the proper time of an object dropped from some height in this metric is constant, but that the coordinate time it takes to fall varies, just from considerations of symmetry.
 
  • #72
pervect said:
Rather than attempt to go through this long thread, I'd like to suggest a better model of a "flat planet" - an accelerating spaceship. In particular, I mean the metric I describe
here.

It should be reasonably clear that the proper time of an object dropped from some height in this metric is constant, but that the coordinate time it takes to fall varies, just from considerations of symmetry.

Thanks for the link. I think the thread has concluded that Galileo was right for a 'flat planet' or uniformly accelerated lab, but there is a nagging question about what happens very near a supermassive black hole's horizon with a 0.8c horizontal velocity ball. Does it drop faster then a ball released from rest?

I've done some https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=1689919&postcount=70" based on your earlier derivation of the radial and angular accelerations in a Schwarzschild orbit and came to the (perhaps erroneous) conclusion that the horizontally moving ball 'falls' faster in a local Cartesian frame.

-J
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Back
Top