sergiokapone
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The Maxwell's equations in vacuum leads to the wave equations for the fields of the form
\nabla^2 \vec E = \frac{1}{c^2} \frac{\partial ^2 \vec E}{\partial t^2}
(the same for the magnetic field)
Such equations are Lorentz-invariant.
Let's consider now the electromagnetic field in a homogeneous medium.
Field in a medium subject to a rate lower than in vacuum v=c/n, where n=\sqrt{\epsilon\mu} and the equations have the form:
\nabla^2 \vec E = \frac{\epsilon\mu}{c^2} \frac{\partial ^2 \vec E}{\partial t^2}
But such equations are obviously not Lorentz-invariant. Why is this a paradox?
\nabla^2 \vec E = \frac{1}{c^2} \frac{\partial ^2 \vec E}{\partial t^2}
(the same for the magnetic field)
Such equations are Lorentz-invariant.
Let's consider now the electromagnetic field in a homogeneous medium.
Field in a medium subject to a rate lower than in vacuum v=c/n, where n=\sqrt{\epsilon\mu} and the equations have the form:
\nabla^2 \vec E = \frac{\epsilon\mu}{c^2} \frac{\partial ^2 \vec E}{\partial t^2}
But such equations are obviously not Lorentz-invariant. Why is this a paradox?