Lorentz force (EM), what happens if

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Lorentz force equation, represented as \(\mathbf{F} = q (\mathbf{E} + \mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B})\). A participant proposed substituting the velocity \(v\) with the Lorentz factor \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\). However, experts in the discussion confirmed that this modification is invalid due to dimensional inconsistencies and emphasized that the original Lorentz force equation is exact and serves to define electric and magnetic fields accurately.

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fluidistic
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I'm wondering what happens (or if it makes sense) if in the formula [tex]\mathbf{F} = q (\mathbf{E} + \mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B})[/tex] we replace [tex]v[/tex] by Lorentz factor, that is [tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}[/tex].
I realize that in the new formula I'm cross-producting a scalar with a vector, but I could assignate a direction to Lorentz factor.

For example, would this changed formula be more accurate than the non modified one? Or does it make sense?
 
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It doesn't make sense.

Apart from the problem you identified, the dimensions no longer match. What problem are you trying to fix anyway? The Lorentz force equation is exact - often one uses it to define the electric and magnetic fields.
 
Vanadium 50 said:
It doesn't make sense.

Apart from the problem you identified, the dimensions no longer match. What problem are you trying to fix anyway? The Lorentz force equation is exact - often one uses it to define the electric and magnetic fields.

Thanks for the reply.
I wasn't trying to fix anything, it occurred to me by chance. I wasn't aware that the Lorentz force was exact, nice to know.

Thanks a lot for the information.
 

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