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Lorentz force (EM), what happens if

  1. Oct 20, 2009 #1

    fluidistic

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    I'm wondering what happens (or if it makes sense) if in the formula [tex]\mathbf{F} = q (\mathbf{E} + \mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B})[/tex] we replace [tex]v[/tex] by Lorentz factor, that is [tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}[/tex].
    I realize that in the new formula I'm cross-producting a scalar with a vector, but I could assignate a direction to Lorentz factor.

    For example, would this changed formula be more accurate than the non modified one? Or does it make sense?
     
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  3. Oct 20, 2009 #2

    Vanadium 50

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    It doesn't make sense.

    Apart from the problem you identified, the dimensions no longer match. What problem are you trying to fix anyway? The Lorentz force equation is exact - often one uses it to define the electric and magnetic fields.
     
  4. Oct 20, 2009 #3

    fluidistic

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    Thanks for the reply.
    I wasn't trying to fix anything, it occured to me by chance. I wasn't aware that the Lorentz force was exact, nice to know.

    Thanks a lot for the information.
     
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