Hello, I have some mathematics background but little to no physics background. I am very interested in physics and am beginning to learn about relativity. Upon exploring the derivation of the Lorentz Transformation equation I noticed something that confused me a little. Again, I don't have much experience or knowledge, so this is probably a rather naive question. My question is: when one takes the root of γ^2=1/(1-(v^2/c^2)) you get γ=±1/(√1-(v^2/c^2)). I understand the significance of the positive result, but what of the negative? Just curiosity, could not find a clear answer elsewhere. Thanks.