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Magnetic Monopole

  1. Aug 4, 2004 #1
    Briefly in our Eng PHYSII class in the text of Halliday and Resnik it talked about physists looking for magnetic monoploles, can someone explain this and the implications of it.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 4, 2004 #2
    I don't think people are looking for this anymore. Some symetries in classical EM equations would make you predict they exist, in parallele to electric charges (you could quite easily adapt the theory for it). But in the end, a magnetic field can only exist when these electric charges move, and it is created as a dipole.
     
  4. Aug 4, 2004 #3
    what is a monopole though. just a dipole that have no ends lol not sure what it means.
     
  5. Aug 4, 2004 #4
    The fact is that no magnetic monopoles have been ever found (like a point particle being the source of a magnetic field). If there were any magnetic monopole it would explain why is charge quantized.

    More info:
    Magnetic Monopoles
     
  6. Aug 4, 2004 #5
    perfect, where the charge comes from, that what i was looking for. thanx.
     
  7. Aug 13, 2004 #6
    The magnetic phenomena, with respect to it's detailed origin and expression, is one of the most least understood aspects of physics.
    It does not appear to be an "emmissive" energy or aspect as such, rather a "closed loop" requirement scenario always involving electrical charges. A true mystery.
     
  8. Aug 13, 2004 #7
    Magnetic fields can be treated completely as relativistic corrections to the fields of moving electric charges. Hence there is no reason to assume that magnetic charge (aka monopoles) exists.
     
  9. Aug 15, 2004 #8
    I have certain knowledge about Dirac's monopole and Kaluza-Klein monopole, but not about Wu-Yang monopole and 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole. What characteristics have the 2 last?

    I believe that some form of magnetic monopole must exist. They are the missing piece in Maxwell equations to be perfectly symmetrical, and symmetry has proven to be something very important in science
     
    Last edited: Aug 15, 2004
  10. Aug 17, 2004 #9

    The t'Hooft monopole comes from the dual superconductor model that tries to explain the quarkconfinement. It is formally defined as the point on a manifold where the abelian gauge is not valid. On this point the gauge fields have a singularity and their form (i mean their equation) looks just like the tensor-form of a Dirac string. This thing is an anti-symmetrival tensorfield that represents a magnetic monopole of certain magnetic charge.

    regards
    marlon
     
  11. Aug 17, 2004 #10

    You are abusing the work of Einstein when you state this !!!

    You are obviously missing the point here. It is a fact that magnetic fields can be transformed into electric fields when performing a Lorentz boost.

    But this means that magnetic as wel as electric fenomena are DUAL. You are able to interchange the two at any point. They are two "different" things used to describe one exact same thing. This is the duality. When you say that magnetic poles are redundant because the can be transformed into electric fields, you may as well say that all electric fenomena are redundant because they can be transformed into magnetic fenomena by using the DUALITY

    regards
    marlon
     
  12. Aug 18, 2004 #11
    Are monopoles spin 1/2 particles like electric charges?
    Do monopoles have rest mass?
     
    Last edited: Aug 18, 2004
  13. Aug 18, 2004 #12
  14. Aug 18, 2004 #13
    yes, them monopoles are the dual particles to electric charges. They are fermions of certain magnetic charge...
     
  15. Aug 18, 2004 #14
    magnetic monopoles circle around the colour electromagnetic field and thus form fluxtubes along which we will get a linear potential between two static quarks. This is a very nice result in order to explain the quarkconfinement based upon the dual abelian higgs model.

    regards
    marlon
     
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