I Analytically Solving the Magnus Effect with Viscosity in Ball Flight Simulation

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on simulating the flight of a ball while incorporating the viscosity parameter, leading to a set of differential equations for the velocity components. The equations presented are d^2V_z/dt^2 = WdV_z/dt - dV_x/dt and d^2V_x/dt^2 = WdV_x/dt - dV_z/dt, with W being a time-dependent function. Participants suggest providing clearer definitions of variables and using LaTeX for better readability of the equations. Additionally, a visual diagram could enhance understanding of the problem. The goal is to find an analytical solution to the equations governing the ball's flight under the influence of viscosity.
George444fg
Messages
25
Reaction score
4
I am trying to add to a problem of mine the viscosity parameter, simulating the fly of a ball. However I obtain the following equations

d^2V_z/dt^2 = WdV_z/dt - dV_x/dt and d^2V_x/dt^2 = WdV_x/dt - dV_z/dt where W is a function linearly dependant to t. Any ideas how I could analytically solve this problem..?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It would be a lot easier for us to help you if you:

1) Write out your equations using LaTeX (see the LaTeX Guide button for instructions),
and
2) Tell us what each of your variables are,
and
3) Describe, in words, what you are trying to do. Possibly with a diagram.
 
  • Like
Likes boneh3ad and jim mcnamara
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy. Previous threads: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/is-a-treadmill-incline-just-a-marketing-gimmick.937725/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/work-done-running-on-an-inclined-treadmill.927825/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-do-we-calculate-the-energy-we-used-to-do-something.1052162/
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top