burakumin
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Hello everyone
I have difficulties in understanding some stuff in Lagrangian and Hamiltonian mechanics. This concerns the equations :
\dot p = - \frac{\partial H}{\partial q}
\frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q} = \frac{\partial L}{\partial q}
First I have to say that I'm a math guy and I understand physics far better by considering things geometrically. Unfortunately, the above equations are 99% of times introduced / explained by decomposing quantities into coordinates : q becomes (q_1, \cdots, q_n), p becomes (p_1, \cdots, p_n) (even in so-called books of "physics for mathematicians"). I would prefere so much to have coordinate-free definitions because coordinate makes everything looks similar (to \mathbb{R}^n) and make geometry-oriented thinking difficult.
Among the two equations of hamiltonian mechanics :
\dot q = \frac{\partial H}{\partial p}, \dot p = - \frac{\partial H}{\partial q}
only the first is clear to me. Some might argue that the equations are symetric but according to me they are definitely not.
If H is a scalar field on \mathbb{R} \times T^*\mathcal{M} where the manifold \mathcal{M} is the configuration space, the informal derivative \frac{\partial H}{\partial p} can be given a rigorous meaning. If time t and point q are given, p \mapsto H(t,q,p) is a function from T^*_q\mathcal{M} to \mathbb{R}. Thus, it has a total derivative D( p \mapsto H(t,q,p) ) from T^*_q\mathcal{M} to T_q\mathcal{M}. So for a given trajectory \mathfrak{q}: \mathbb{R} \mapsto \mathcal{M}, the equation \dot{\mathfrak{q}}(t) = \frac{\partial H}{\partial p}(t,\mathfrak{q}(t),\mathfrak{p}(t)) has a precise meaning.
But for \frac{\partial H}{\partial q}, I don't understand what it could possibly mean to derivate H along q, with a constant p. When q is changing, you're moving from a fiber to another one, and the vectors p in different fibers are incomparable. Consequently, the phrase "constant p" sounds non-sensical (unless of course we have a tool to match the fibers but I have never seen any mention of a (pseudo)riemanian structure / connexion in this context)
For the same reason, I don't knwow how to interprete \frac{\partial L}{\partial q}
I know that \mathcal{N} = T^*\mathcal{M} is itself a manifold with interesting properties due to its canonical symplectic structure (such as the canonical isomorphism between T\mathcal{N} = TT^*\mathcal{M} and T^*\mathcal{N} = T^*T^*\mathcal{M}). So I have already considered a possible interpretation of \frac{\partial H}{\partial q} as the (exterior) derivative of H, considered as a scalar field on \mathcal{N}, (the derivative dH : \mathcal{N} \mapsto T^*\mathcal{N}). In a similar manner, for a "momentum trajectory" \mathfrak{p} : \mathbb{R} \mapsto \mathcal{N}, we can think about the derivated function \dot{\mathfrak{p}} : \mathbb{R} \mapsto T\mathcal{N}.
This could possibly match but it sounds so different from what the notation \frac{\partial H}{\partial q} suggests (dH is a really total derivative of H: it gives the variation of H for all "directions" of \mathcal{N} = T^*\mathcal{M}, including variations along q), that I can hardly believe the correct explanation is to be found this way.
What to think about all that ? Should I consider othe theoretical entities like Poisson Brackets ?
Thank you
I have difficulties in understanding some stuff in Lagrangian and Hamiltonian mechanics. This concerns the equations :
\dot p = - \frac{\partial H}{\partial q}
\frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q} = \frac{\partial L}{\partial q}
First I have to say that I'm a math guy and I understand physics far better by considering things geometrically. Unfortunately, the above equations are 99% of times introduced / explained by decomposing quantities into coordinates : q becomes (q_1, \cdots, q_n), p becomes (p_1, \cdots, p_n) (even in so-called books of "physics for mathematicians"). I would prefere so much to have coordinate-free definitions because coordinate makes everything looks similar (to \mathbb{R}^n) and make geometry-oriented thinking difficult.
Among the two equations of hamiltonian mechanics :
\dot q = \frac{\partial H}{\partial p}, \dot p = - \frac{\partial H}{\partial q}
only the first is clear to me. Some might argue that the equations are symetric but according to me they are definitely not.
If H is a scalar field on \mathbb{R} \times T^*\mathcal{M} where the manifold \mathcal{M} is the configuration space, the informal derivative \frac{\partial H}{\partial p} can be given a rigorous meaning. If time t and point q are given, p \mapsto H(t,q,p) is a function from T^*_q\mathcal{M} to \mathbb{R}. Thus, it has a total derivative D( p \mapsto H(t,q,p) ) from T^*_q\mathcal{M} to T_q\mathcal{M}. So for a given trajectory \mathfrak{q}: \mathbb{R} \mapsto \mathcal{M}, the equation \dot{\mathfrak{q}}(t) = \frac{\partial H}{\partial p}(t,\mathfrak{q}(t),\mathfrak{p}(t)) has a precise meaning.
But for \frac{\partial H}{\partial q}, I don't understand what it could possibly mean to derivate H along q, with a constant p. When q is changing, you're moving from a fiber to another one, and the vectors p in different fibers are incomparable. Consequently, the phrase "constant p" sounds non-sensical (unless of course we have a tool to match the fibers but I have never seen any mention of a (pseudo)riemanian structure / connexion in this context)
For the same reason, I don't knwow how to interprete \frac{\partial L}{\partial q}
I know that \mathcal{N} = T^*\mathcal{M} is itself a manifold with interesting properties due to its canonical symplectic structure (such as the canonical isomorphism between T\mathcal{N} = TT^*\mathcal{M} and T^*\mathcal{N} = T^*T^*\mathcal{M}). So I have already considered a possible interpretation of \frac{\partial H}{\partial q} as the (exterior) derivative of H, considered as a scalar field on \mathcal{N}, (the derivative dH : \mathcal{N} \mapsto T^*\mathcal{N}). In a similar manner, for a "momentum trajectory" \mathfrak{p} : \mathbb{R} \mapsto \mathcal{N}, we can think about the derivated function \dot{\mathfrak{p}} : \mathbb{R} \mapsto T\mathcal{N}.
This could possibly match but it sounds so different from what the notation \frac{\partial H}{\partial q} suggests (dH is a really total derivative of H: it gives the variation of H for all "directions" of \mathcal{N} = T^*\mathcal{M}, including variations along q), that I can hardly believe the correct explanation is to be found this way.
What to think about all that ? Should I consider othe theoretical entities like Poisson Brackets ?
Thank you
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