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## Main Question or Discussion Point

I was reading Michio Kaku's book Prallel Worlds recently and I believe I saw it say that Maxwell's equations for electricity and magnetism become the same for electricity and magnetism when monopoles are introduced.

My question is, if the equations become the same then why don't we say that electric charge is an example of a monopole? I may have misread, but if the equations for monopoles and electric charge are the same then why not?

My question is, if the equations become the same then why don't we say that electric charge is an example of a monopole? I may have misread, but if the equations for monopoles and electric charge are the same then why not?