Originally posted by Sauron
Now you say that the lowest allowed particles are spin -1 and spin-1/2. But if spin-1/2 are fermions and your first claim was that fermions were not allowed. Now instead your problem is with the spin-0, i.e. thte hiporthethical and still unobserved Highs bosson (that tachyonic particle in the unbroken symmetry phase...). I guess that you may explain your change of opinion before i give any answer to these aspect.
Of course you're right about the implication of my statement for spin-0 particles, but that's a problem for the LQG people, not me. Besides, spin-1/2 is more important than spin-0.
Now, I know you're saying that you think I've changed my previously stated position. But I'm having a bit of trouble decoding precisely why. Anyway, I haven't, as the following shows.
Originally posted by marcus
Motl is kind of outrageous in places----like at the end in the Unsolved Questions section he raises the question "could it be that LQG does not allow for the existence of fermions?"
Who's right lubos motl at harvard or marcus? It's clear what marcus thought. Similarly, because of this it was clear to me that marcus didn't understand what was going on. He needed to learn about spin, so I gave a brief overview of this subject in very general terms unrelated to LQG in any specific way. Here's what I said (you can check that I haven't changed a single word)
'Okay guys, briefly - as all children learn in kindergarten (maybe you guys skipped?) - particles are defined in terms of their mass and spin which label - and this reflects their deeper significance - the representations of the inhomogeneous lorentz group under which their states must transform to respect invariances related to the geometry of spacetime that give rise by noether's theorem to conservation of mass-energy-momentum. In particular, spin specifies the representation of the rotational subgroup SO(3) of the homogeneous lorentz group SO(3,1). For even and odd spin particles - i.e. bosons and fermions - the reps are tensorial and spinorial respectively. For instance, in the case of spin-1 particles - the photon is an example - the rep is SO(3) itself. On the other hand, states of the spin-1/2 particles out of which all matter in our universe is composed transform under the double cover SU(2) of SO(3)."
The point is that I've said nothing about LQG in this: This is a lesson on spin, not LQG. Now, what marcus needed to understand to see that lubos motl was in fact not being "outrageous" was why SO(3) LQG doesn't couple to spin-1/2 particles - i.e. to matter, clearly a bad thing - while SU(2) does, the rest is irrelevant. Thus to make my point, it was sufficient to simply give marcus the examples in the last line of my explanation, and with those examples given, I could end with the following conclusion (again you can check that I haven't changed a word)
"We'll marcus, you now have the answer to the question "why SU(2)?" I challenged you to answer a while back, which is that the LQG gauge group G is some representation of the rotational subgroup SO(3) of the lorentz group, with the observed existence of matter requiring G=SU(2), the double cover of SO(3), with G=SO(3) being by itself insufficient to incorporate this basic empirical fact."
Everything I wrote is correct and designed simply to convince marcus of the special import of lubos's result with respect to LQG's consistency with the existence of matter. Pointing out that once G - which can simply be taken as some compact group - is chosen, the complete spectrum (open questions about the precise manner and consistency of couplings to gravity - if they can ever be sensibly defined at all - aside) is given by it's irreducible representations was irrelevant, since it was only the lowest spin reps that were at issue.
But your not marcus. I responded directly to your post in which you voiced general disagreement with the above remarks, but I wasn't completely sure how to respond because you said you hadn't learned about what I'd discussed above, so I simply asked the general question I did to set the compass, and it in no way reflects a change of opinion on my part.
Still, based on this post, I don't know whether you agree with marcus. If you don't agree than I'll simply tell you to keep reading until you come to it. The SO(3) problem is well-known, I didn't make it up.
If you do agree but still aren't convinced that my way of looking at it is correct, then let me know and we'll figure out the right argument if mine turns out to be wrong (though I'm fairly sure this is not the case). In any event, I think it's important to understand the stuff I was saying about spin.
I'm aware that in GR, bosons can live on the spacetime manifold from the start, while fermions require a vierbein. But in LQG there is no fixed background geometry and the gauge group would determine the spectrum (assuming that this idea can ever work).
One last thing. When you post a response, be sure to quote the most recent version of my posts because I'm building an arsenal of explanations so I try to give answers that are precise and detailed, and that requires an editing process.