Matuku
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Whilst following my textbooks advice and "proving to myself that the inertia listed are true" I considered the Moment of Inertia of a hollow sphere by adding up infinitesimally thin rings:
<br /> dI = y^2 dm<br /> = y^2 \sigma dS<br /> = y^2 \sigma 2\pi y dz<br /> = 2\pi y^3 \sigma dz<br />
This didn't work however as it appears you have to consider the projection of dS as "seen" from the z-axis; that is, dS = \frac{dz}{sin\theta}.
I kind of understand this but I was wondering if there is anything similar to consider when treating a solid sphere as infinitesimally thin disks; a "projection of volume"? http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/HBASE/isph.html#sph2 doesn't imply that there is but in that case can someone explain why not?
<br /> dI = y^2 dm<br /> = y^2 \sigma dS<br /> = y^2 \sigma 2\pi y dz<br /> = 2\pi y^3 \sigma dz<br />
This didn't work however as it appears you have to consider the projection of dS as "seen" from the z-axis; that is, dS = \frac{dz}{sin\theta}.
I kind of understand this but I was wondering if there is anything similar to consider when treating a solid sphere as infinitesimally thin disks; a "projection of volume"? http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/HBASE/isph.html#sph2 doesn't imply that there is but in that case can someone explain why not?