Monopole Moment of a sphere of charge

lampshade
Messages
17
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



I'm really bad at these type of problems. I'm supposed to find the monopole moment of this continuous charge distribution. its charge is

\sigma = const*cos(\theta)

Homework Equations



p = \int r'\rho(r')d\tau
which then since we are doing a surface charge should be
p = \int r' \sigma da

The Attempt at a Solution


Well, I want to do the double integral of something to find the charge distribution so I can find the monopole moment. I'm thinking something like
p = \int_{0}^{2 \pi}\int_{0}^{2 \pi} r' * c \cdot cos(\theta) sin( \theta) r^2 d\phi d\theta
and I'm thinking that r' is just r so then it would be

p = \int_0^{2\pi} d\phi \int_0^{\pi} r'^3cose(\theta)sin(\theta)d\theta
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
The obvious problem that then comes up is that then appears is that I get a 0 term from the second integral that makes my whole monopole moment zero. Is this correct?
 
if you are supposed to calculate the monopole moment then you integrate the charge density only. the formulas you have above are those for a dipole moment. monopole moment is just total charge
 
The monopole moment is zero. Some of your formulas are wrong, as Capt. pointed out.
 
Ok, thanks! I think I see what I did wrong!
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top