I Multi period portfolio risk/return

  • I
  • Thread starter Thread starter hotvette
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Period
hotvette
Homework Helper
Messages
1,001
Reaction score
11
TL;DR Summary
How to compute mean and variance of multi period investment
I saw an interesting table in Asset Allocation (Roger Gibson) showing the distribution of portfolio annualized returns for a hypothetical portfolio with mean of 5.8% and standard deviation of 6%. It shows the return percentiles for various holding periods from 1 to 25 years. Can this distribution be determined in closed form for a given mean, standard deviation, and holding period, or must one use monte carlo simulation?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The first idea which comes to mind is to anchor all data at the starting point. Say we set up the portfolio at ##t_0##. Then we can make quantities comparable by comparison to this point in time. The return e.g. would be the difference of prices: ##r(t)= p(t)-p(t_0)## adjusted by things like: where do dividends go, do we consider inflation rates, and do we track and calculate with market capitalization. Different holding periods would then be calculated as ##r(t_2)-r(t_1)=p(t_2)-p(t_0)-p(t_1)+p(t_0)=p(t_2)-p(t_1)##.

Similar can be done with expectation values and risk, since they change over time. We get functions ##\mu(t)## and ##\sigma(t)##.

What did you mean by given values? They are determined by the overall dependencies defined by the market and calculated for the specific portfolio at time ##t##. You cannot choose them, they are benchmarks of the portfolio.
 
Without seeing the table it is a bit difficult to understand what you mean: is @fresh_42 on the right track or is it more like this:
  • We have a portfolio whose return in anyone year is modeled by a normal distribution with mean 5.8% and SD 6%.
  • We model the return over an n-year period by n successive trials of this model.
  • We want to tabulate quartiles/deciles/confidence limits or whatever for this distribution.
If this is the case then the distribution of the cumulative return is the product of n normal distributions, and whilst it is fairly easy to show that the variance of this distribution is equal to the product of the variances, the distribution is definitely not normal - see Mathworld for a summary of the cases n=2 and n=3.
 
The fact that the results will not be scale-invariant demonstates the weakness of modelling the annual return with a normal distribution (1 year at 4.04% return should have an identical distribution to 2 x 6 months at 2% return).

Edit: perhaps my assumption that the author was assuming a normal distribution was incorrect; log-normal would be more appropriate and this would have a simple analytic solution for n years.
 
Last edited:
The page is attached. The portfolio is hypothetical whose returns follow a normal distribution with mean 5.8% and SD of 6%. What I mean by given is that for a specified mean, SD, and number of periods, what is the distribution of returns after the n periods assuming mean and SD are constant for each period. For the below, the author chose mean 5.8% and SD of 6%. We could choose anything.
Gibson.jpg
 
If the author were using a normal distribution then my post #3 would apply. But that chart and table are clearly NOT normal - the tails are not symmetrical. It looks as though (I haven't checked the maths) the author may be, correctly, using a log-normal distribution in which case my post #4 would apply - the properties of the product of n log-normal distributions are easily determined.
 
Shame he can't spell annualized though.
 
pbuk said:
Shame he can't spell annualized though.
With that distribution I'd fire the fonds manager anyway.
 
  • Like
Likes pbuk
the distribution is lognomal, as a normal distribution has a non zero probability of a return < -100%

be careful though, the mean and median returns are different - the distribution is skewed right, so mean > median

more specifically,

Mean = ##exp(\mu + {\sigma^2/2})##

median= ##exp(\mu)##

the kth percentile scales with the square root of the standard deviation, so
z= zscore for kth percentile, t = number of years

the kth percentile (log) return then is

##\mu +z*\sigma/ {\sqrt{t}}##
 
Back
Top