jackxx
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\nabla \cdot B=0,
so \int\nabla \cdot B dv=0,
then \int B \cdot \widehat{n}da=0,
let B=\nabla \times A,
then \int\nabla \times A \cdot \widehat{n}da=0,
thus A=\nabla\varphi[/itex], thus B=\nabla \times A=\nabla \times\nabla\varphi=0<br /> <br /> I know something is wrong with that but I am not sure what it is any ideas?
so \int\nabla \cdot B dv=0,
then \int B \cdot \widehat{n}da=0,
let B=\nabla \times A,
then \int\nabla \times A \cdot \widehat{n}da=0,
thus A=\nabla\varphi[/itex], thus B=\nabla \times A=\nabla \times\nabla\varphi=0<br /> <br /> I know something is wrong with that but I am not sure what it is any ideas?
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