- 1,227

- 2

__A short question:__

Is it right to say that the quantum version of Noether's theorem is simply given by the evolution rule for any observable A:

i hb dA/dt = [H,A]

For example, if A is the angular momentum, the invariance by rotations R = exp(i h L angle) implies [H,A] = 0 and Noether's conclusion follows.

__Another way to state my question:__

Isn't it right to say that Noether's theorem is "much more popular" in QM than in CM?