- #1
lalbatros
- 1,256
- 2
A short question:
Is it right to say that the quantum version of Noether's theorem is simply given by the evolution rule for any observable A:
i hb dA/dt = [H,A]
For example, if A is the angular momentum, the invariance by rotations R = exp(i h L angle) implies [H,A] = 0 and Noether's conclusion follows.
Another way to state my question:
Isn't it right to say that Noether's theorem is "much more popular" in QM than in CM?
Is it right to say that the quantum version of Noether's theorem is simply given by the evolution rule for any observable A:
i hb dA/dt = [H,A]
For example, if A is the angular momentum, the invariance by rotations R = exp(i h L angle) implies [H,A] = 0 and Noether's conclusion follows.
Another way to state my question:
Isn't it right to say that Noether's theorem is "much more popular" in QM than in CM?