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Normalization of wave function

  1. Apr 16, 2010 #1
    hello

    i attached my question if i can get some help

    i think that there is another way to solve this problem
     

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  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 16, 2010 #2

    kuruman

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    Gold Member

    Your algebra is faulty.

    [tex]\int_0^{2\pi}sin\phi d\phi=0[/tex]

    Over a complete cycle for a sine (or cosine) you have as much positive area "under the curve" as you have negative.
     
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