Normalize Wave Function: Find A Value

  • Thread starter Thread starter CollectiveRocker
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Normalization
CollectiveRocker
Messages
137
Reaction score
0
How do I find the value of the normalization constant A for the wave function
Ψ = Axe ^ (-x squared/2)? I know that I set it equal to 1, but do i do the integral from negative infinity to positive infinity; for no other limits are given?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Sounds like this very same question has been asked before...that time with the square of the W.f'n. being the given qty...

Yes, if unspecified, integrate from negative to positive infinity.
 
So do I just end up with: ((-x squared)/2)Axe ^(-x squared/2), evaluated from negative infinity to infinity?
 
No, you want to find A from
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi ^* (x) \psi (x) dx = 1

=> \frac{1}{|A|^2} = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x ^2 e^{-x^2} dx
 
Last edited:
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
961
Replies
8
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
954
Replies
1
Views
984
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
31
Views
5K
Replies
4
Views
3K
Back
Top