Normals to (hyper)surface must be scalar multiples?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of normals to a (hyper)surface defined by the equation F(x)=0. The original poster questions whether normal vectors at a point on a hypersurface must be scalar multiples of each other, particularly in higher dimensions beyond R3.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the geometric interpretation of normal vectors in R3 and question if the same principles apply to higher dimensions. There is a discussion about the uniqueness of normal lines to smooth surfaces and hypersurfaces, with some participants seeking clarification on the existence of theorems supporting these ideas.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights regarding the relationship between normal vectors and the gradient of F(x), suggesting that the concept holds in higher dimensions. However, questions remain about the uniqueness of normal lines for hypersurfaces and whether there are established theorems addressing this issue.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the conditions under which the normal vectors are defined, particularly the requirement that the gradient of F(x) is nonzero for the hypersurface. The implicit function theorem is mentioned as a potential tool for understanding the dimensionality of tangent vectors related to the hypersurface.

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Homework Statement


Let S is a (hyper)surface defined by {x|F(x)=0}. Suppose n1 and n2 are both normal to S at x=a. Then n1 and n2 are scalar multiples of each other.


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The Attempt at a Solution


If S is a surface in R3, then I think it's clear geometrically that the above must be true in this case. But what about in higher dimensions (hypersurface)? Is the above still true? If so, how can we prove it? I really can't think of a sound way of justifying it. Or is the above only true for a surface in R3?

Thank you for answering.
 
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It basically comes down to the fact that the direction of a vector normal to the surface is given by grad F(x). So yes, it still holds for dim > 3.
 
But how do you know that
if there is another normal vector n1 to the (hyper)surface, then it must be a scalar multiple of grad F(x)?
 
Because there exist only one normal line to a (smooth) surface at any point on that surface. Any normal vector must lie along that line.
 
HallsofIvy said:
Because there exist only one normal line to a (smooth) surface at any point on that surface. Any normal vector must lie along that line.

I think I understand that for surface, but how about hypersurface? Is there a theorem saying that the noraml line to a smooth hypersurface must be unique?

Thanks.
 
kingwinner said:
I think I understand that for surface, but how about hypersurface? Is there a theorem saying that the noraml line to a smooth hypersurface must be unique?

Thanks.

A hypersurface in dimension n is given as F(x)=0 where grad(F) is nonzero. Use the implicit function theorem to prove that a hypersurface in dimension n has n-1 independent tangent vectors, if you don't already know that. A normal to the surface has to be orthogonal to all those tangent vectors. That gives you a set of n linearly independent vectors. Can there be two linearly independent normals?
 

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