This is a simple question. I need to know if I'm reading the notation correctly. "Show that for each c in (a,b) the limit f(x) exists as x --> c- and as x --> c+." This is in Royden's Real Analysis. What I'm going to do is show that the left and right hand limits exist... right? Just like in Calc. I 15 years ago... like I remember any of this... LOL. But that's what I'm supposed to do here? Correct?