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Notation question. Simple.

  1. Nov 15, 2009 #1
    This is a simple question. I need to know if I'm reading the notation correctly.

    "Show that for each c in (a,b) the limit f(x) exists as x --> c- and as x --> c+."

    This is in Royden's Real Analysis.

    What I'm going to do is show that the left and right hand limits exist... right? Just like in Calc. I 15 years ago... like I remember any of this... LOL.

    But that's what I'm supposed to do here? Correct?
     
    Last edited: Nov 15, 2009
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 15, 2009 #2

    Mark44

    Staff: Mentor

    Right.
     
  4. Nov 15, 2009 #3
    thanks!
     
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