- #1
futurebird
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This is a simple question. I need to know if I'm reading the notation correctly.
"Show that for each c in (a,b) the limit f(x) exists as x --> c- and as x --> c+."
This is in Royden's Real Analysis.
What I'm going to do is show that the left and right hand limits exist... right? Just like in Calc. I 15 years ago... like I remember any of this... LOL.
But that's what I'm supposed to do here? Correct?
"Show that for each c in (a,b) the limit f(x) exists as x --> c- and as x --> c+."
This is in Royden's Real Analysis.
What I'm going to do is show that the left and right hand limits exist... right? Just like in Calc. I 15 years ago... like I remember any of this... LOL.
But that's what I'm supposed to do here? Correct?
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