pleasehelpmeno
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Homework Statement
Why does <0|\frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}∫ \hat{a}^{\dagger}(t,r) \hat{a}(t,r) d^{3} \textbf{k} |0> = \frac{1}{\pi^2}∫|β|^2 k^2 dk.
Where \hat{a} and \hat{a}^{\dagger} and its conjugate are bogulobov transformations given by:
\hat{a}(t,k) = \alpha(t)a(k) + β(t)b^{\dagger}(-k).
In the ground state a|0> =0 etc.
I am fairly certain it is some sort of table integral but i am not sure and want to prove it, any help or suggestions would be appreciated. I have taken the conjugate of the aforementioned a and multiplied it though but I don't understand why d^{3} \textbf{k} becomes k^2 dk. and how the pi factor changes, i.e. i get
\frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}∫ b^{\dagger}(-k)b(-k)|β|^2 d^{3} \textbf{k}