Number Theory: Fermat Numbers coprime => infinite # primes

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around Fermat numbers, defined as F_n = 2^{2^n} + 1, and the properties of their coprimality. The original poster seeks to prove that F_n and F_m are coprime for n ≠ m and to explore the implications of this property for the infinitude of primes.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use induction and properties of divisibility to show that if a divisor d divides two Fermat numbers, it must be 1. They question the elegance of their proof and seek alternative insights.
  • Some participants affirm the original poster's reasoning and suggest recalling Euclid's proof regarding the infinitude of primes, hinting at the relationship between Fermat numbers and prime divisors.
  • Another participant mentions a stronger theorem about the coprimality of Fermat numbers, indicating that no common divisor exists for different Fermat numbers.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and affirmations of the original poster's approach. There is a recognition of the connection between the properties of Fermat numbers and the concept of infinite primes, though no consensus or resolution has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses uncertainty about the implications of their findings for the infinitude of primes and seeks clarification on the proof structure. There is also a mention of the potential complexity in proving the coprimality of Fermat numbers.

mattmns
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Here is the question from our book:

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Let [itex]F_n = 2^{2^n} + 1[/itex] be the nth Fermat numbers. Use the identity [itex]a^2-b^2 = (a-b)(a+b)[/itex] to show that [itex]F_n - 2 = F_0F_1\cdots F_{n-1}[/itex].

Conclude that [itex](F_n,F_m)=1 \ \forall \ n \neq m[/itex]. Show that this implies the infinitude of the primes.
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The first part is easily done by induction, and using [itex]2^{2^n}=(2^{2_{n-1}})^2[/itex].

It is the second, and third part that I am having trouble with.

I just got an idea for the second. It is easy to show that if [itex]d\mid F_n = 2^{2^n}+1[/itex] and [itex]d\mid F_m = 2^{2^m}+1[/itex] Then we can easily show that d is not even (subtract the two, and we get that d divides an even number, and from the previous things we know d divides an odd number, so d cannot be even.)

Now we can use what we proved in the first part (assume, wlog, n>m) [itex]F_n = (F_m+2)F_mF_{m+1}\cdots F_{n-1} + 2[/itex]

[itex]d\mid F_m[/itex] and [itex]d\mid F_n[/itex] so with a little manipulation and properties we can get[itex]d\mid 2[/itex] and so d=1 or d=2, but d is not even so d=1 (ignoring negative divisors as we are looking at the greatest anyway).

Kind of ugly, but it seems correct.

Any ideas of a more slick proof, or any insight into the problem?

Also, any ideas about how I can get that this implies the infinitude of the primes? (standard proof by contradiction? Let p_1,...p_r, be the list of all Fermat primes. Consider some clever number N, and break up into prime decomp? Break into cases?)

Thanks!
 
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I think you are well on your way to proving that if d divides F_n then it does not divide F_m for m<n. Which is, I think, what you have been trying to say. As for the infinitude of primes, remember Euclid's proof? Hint: either F_n is prime or F_n has a divisor d...
 
Your trying to solve a solved problem.
There is a stronger theorem which says:
Fermat's numbers are whole prime to each other.
Which mean, there is no "d" divisor for two different fermat numbers.
 
To compute the GCD, you can use the fact that:

GCD(r, s) = GCD(r, s Mod r)

which is easy to prove and is the basis of Euclid's algorithm for the GCD.
 

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