mattmns
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Here is the question from our book:
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Let F_n = 2^{2^n} + 1 be the nth Fermat numbers. Use the identity a^2-b^2 = (a-b)(a+b) to show that F_n - 2 = F_0F_1\cdots F_{n-1}.
Conclude that (F_n,F_m)=1 \ \forall \ n \neq m. Show that this implies the infinitude of the primes.
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The first part is easily done by induction, and using 2^{2^n}=(2^{2_{n-1}})^2.
It is the second, and third part that I am having trouble with.
I just got an idea for the second. It is easy to show that if d\mid F_n = 2^{2^n}+1 and d\mid F_m = 2^{2^m}+1 Then we can easily show that d is not even (subtract the two, and we get that d divides an even number, and from the previous things we know d divides an odd number, so d cannot be even.)
Now we can use what we proved in the first part (assume, wlog, n>m) F_n = (F_m+2)F_mF_{m+1}\cdots F_{n-1} + 2
d\mid F_m and d\mid F_n so with a little manipulation and properties we can getd\mid 2 and so d=1 or d=2, but d is not even so d=1 (ignoring negative divisors as we are looking at the greatest anyway).
Kind of ugly, but it seems correct.
Any ideas of a more slick proof, or any insight into the problem?
Also, any ideas about how I can get that this implies the infinitude of the primes? (standard proof by contradiction? Let p_1,...p_r, be the list of all Fermat primes. Consider some clever number N, and break up into prime decomp? Break into cases?)
Thanks!
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Let F_n = 2^{2^n} + 1 be the nth Fermat numbers. Use the identity a^2-b^2 = (a-b)(a+b) to show that F_n - 2 = F_0F_1\cdots F_{n-1}.
Conclude that (F_n,F_m)=1 \ \forall \ n \neq m. Show that this implies the infinitude of the primes.
-------
The first part is easily done by induction, and using 2^{2^n}=(2^{2_{n-1}})^2.
It is the second, and third part that I am having trouble with.
I just got an idea for the second. It is easy to show that if d\mid F_n = 2^{2^n}+1 and d\mid F_m = 2^{2^m}+1 Then we can easily show that d is not even (subtract the two, and we get that d divides an even number, and from the previous things we know d divides an odd number, so d cannot be even.)
Now we can use what we proved in the first part (assume, wlog, n>m) F_n = (F_m+2)F_mF_{m+1}\cdots F_{n-1} + 2
d\mid F_m and d\mid F_n so with a little manipulation and properties we can getd\mid 2 and so d=1 or d=2, but d is not even so d=1 (ignoring negative divisors as we are looking at the greatest anyway).
Kind of ugly, but it seems correct.
Any ideas of a more slick proof, or any insight into the problem?
Also, any ideas about how I can get that this implies the infinitude of the primes? (standard proof by contradiction? Let p_1,...p_r, be the list of all Fermat primes. Consider some clever number N, and break up into prime decomp? Break into cases?)
Thanks!
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