Objects of equal mass, but different terminal velocities?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of terminal velocity, specifically focusing on why objects with the same mass but different projected surface areas experience different terminal velocities. Participants reference the formula for terminal velocity and explore the implications of mass and surface area on drag force and gravitational force.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants attempt to reconcile the relationship between mass, surface area, and terminal velocity, questioning how different surface areas affect drag force despite having the same gravitational force. Some express confusion about the implications of the terminal velocity condition where net force is zero.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations of the terminal velocity equation. Some have provided clarifications regarding the variables in the equation, while others are questioning the assumptions made about drag force and gravitational force equivalence.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of the terminal velocity concept, particularly in relation to the effects of surface area on drag force. There is an acknowledgment of varying levels of understanding among participants, with some expressing uncertainty about their reasoning.

TelusPig
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Why do different objects having the same mass but different projected surface areas have different terminal velocities? On wikipedia, the formula for terminal velocity is Vt = sqrt (2mg/pAC) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Terminal_ve ...

I understand from this formula that the terminal velocities would be different since objects with a higher surface area would have lower terminal velocities.

What I don't understand is that if both objects have the same mass, they have they same gravitational force Fg. Terminal velocity means that the net force of the drag force (Fd) and Fg is 0. So in order to reach the terminal velocity, wouldn't the drag have to be the same for each object for Fg to equal -Fd, thus making the terminal velocities the same in each case :confused:?

So... I don't know it seems contradictory depending on how I look at this problem? (I'm not good with physics :frown:)
 
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TelusPig said:
Why do different objects having the same mass but different projected surface areas have different terminal velocities? On wikipedia, the formula for terminal velocity is Vt = sqrt (2mg/pAC) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Terminal_ve ...

I understand from this formula that the terminal velocities would be different since objects with a higher surface area would have lower terminal velocities.

What I don't understand is that if both objects have the same mass, they have they same gravitational force Fg. Terminal velocity means that the net force of the drag force (Fd) and Fg is 0. So in order to reach the terminal velocity, wouldn't the drag have to be the same for each object for Fg to equal -Fd, thus making the terminal velocities the same in each case :confused:?

So... I don't know it seems contradictory depending on how I look at this problem? (I'm not good with physics :frown:)

What is the "A" in your equation?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Sorry:
m = mass,
g = 9.81m/s²,
p = density,
A = projected surface area,
C = drag coefficient
 
TelusPig said:
Sorry:
m = mass,
g = 9.81m/s²,
p = density,
A = projected surface area,
C = drag coefficient

Thanks. I know what A means. What I was getting at was what does its effects mean to you in the equation if the m*g is the same?
 
TelusPig said:
Why do different objects having the same mass but different projected surface areas have different terminal velocities? On wikipedia, the formula for terminal velocity is Vt = sqrt (2mg/pAC)

The answer to your question is in that equation. Think about it.
 
Well I know that having a bigger area wold mean that the denominator increases, so that the overall result is smaller, as I said in my first post "I understand from this formula that the terminal velocities would be different since objects with a higher surface area would have lower terminal velocities."

Where I seem to find a contradiction (seem because maybe my reasoning is wrong in the following paragraph) is when I reason that the terminal velocity means that there is no net force acting on the object. Both objects have the same gravitational force since they have the same mass. For the net force to be zero, the upwad drag force would have to be equal to mg. Since both mg's are the same, aren't the drag forces the same? Both objects accelerate until the drag force equals the pull of gravity... so wouldn't both objects have the same terminal velocity?

Maybe my reasoning in the 2nd paragraph is not correct, which is what I'm trying to figure out :frown:
 
Your reasoning is not correct. Yes, the net force is zero at terminal velocity. You are implicitly assuming that the thing contribution to the drag force is velocity. That is obviously incorrect. Think about it this way: Why do skydivers use parachutes?
 

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