- #1
pivoxa15
- 2,255
- 1
In my maths textbook it asks to prove 2^n<=n! for all n>=4
I could prove it no problems using induction but could show 2^n<n! without the equality inequality.
My question is why would the textbook ask for a weaker condition? Is it a misprint?
If I can show < then it automatically implies <= holds as well dosen't it?
I could prove it no problems using induction but could show 2^n<n! without the equality inequality.
My question is why would the textbook ask for a weaker condition? Is it a misprint?
If I can show < then it automatically implies <= holds as well dosen't it?