Optimize function over unit ball

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the maximum and minimum values of the function f(x,y,z) = xy(z+1) defined over the unit ball, specifically under the constraints x² + y² + z² ≤ 1 and x, y, z ≥ 0.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using both spherical and Cartesian coordinates to analyze the function. Some suggest substituting z = √(1 - x² - y²) to simplify the problem, while others express uncertainty about maximizing the function in spherical coordinates.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing exploration of different methods to approach the problem, including substitution and gradient analysis. Some participants have noted the necessity of evaluating the function on the boundary of the defined region, while others have pointed out potential errors in previous calculations.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention that the problem precedes more advanced optimization techniques, such as Lagrange multipliers, indicating a focus on methods permissible within the current learning context.

Inertigratus
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Homework Statement


Find the maximum and minimum value of the function, defined over x2 + y2 + z2 \leq 1.
x \geq 0, y \geq 0, y \geq 0.


Homework Equations


f(x,y,z) = xy(z+1)


The Attempt at a Solution


\nablaf = (y(z+1), x(z+1), xy) = 0
Gets me (0, y, -1), (x, 0, -1), (0, 0, z) and they all result in f(x,y,z) = 0.
Then I wasn't sure how to find the values on the sphere.
What I did was I switched to spherical coordinates with r = 1 and plugged them into the eq.
f(\theta, \varphi) = sin2\theta(cos\theta + 1)cos\varphisin\varphi.
Then it's rather obvious that to get max, \theta = +-\pi/2 and \varphi = \pi/4.
Plugging that back into the cartesian coordinates and into the function gives +- 1/2.
Maximum is supposed to be 16/27 and minimum 0.

By the way, this problem comes before the problems that are about optimizing functions with constraints. So no need to use the lagrange multiplier.

Any ideas? :)
 
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To do it in cartesian coordinates, try substituting z = \sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2} into the formula for f and maximizing with respect to x and y.

Your spherical coordinate formula is right, but you didn't maximize it correctly.
 
Last edited:
Inertigratus said:

Homework Statement


Find the maximum and minimum value of the function, defined over x2 + y2 + z2 \leq 1.
x \geq 0, y \geq 0, y \geq 0.


Homework Equations


f(x,y,z) = xy(z+1)


The Attempt at a Solution


\nablaf = (y(z+1), x(z+1), xy) = 0
Gets me (0, y, -1), (x, 0, -1), (0, 0, z) and they all result in f(x,y,z) = 0.
Then I wasn't sure how to find the values on the sphere.
What I did was I switched to spherical coordinates with r = 1 and plugged them into the eq.
f(\theta, \varphi) = sin2\theta(cos\theta + 1)cos\varphisin\varphi.
Then it's rather obvious that to get max, \theta = +-\pi/2 and \varphi = \pi/4.
Plugging that back into the cartesian coordinates and into the function gives +- 1/2.
Maximum is supposed to be 16/27 and minimum 0.

By the way, this problem comes before the problems that are about optimizing functions with constraints. So no need to use the lagrange multiplier.

Any ideas? :)

Look at f(x,y,z). For x , y and z >= 0, all its factors are >= 0, so f >= 0. Since you can have f = 0 (for example, by taking x=0 or y=0, etc.) the minimum value is f = 0. The gradient of f need not be zero at these minimizing points. Now consider the case f(x0,y0,z0) > 0 (so x0 > 0, y0 > 0 and z0 < -1). If x0^2 + y0^2 + z0^2 < 1 we can set x = c*x0, y = c*y0 and z = z0 to get f(cx0,cy0,z0) = c^2*f(x0,y0,z0) > f(x0,y0,z0) if c > 1. Increase c until we have c^2(x0^2 + y0^2) + z0^2 = 1, and the resulting point (x,y,z) will have a larger f-value than (x0,y0,z0). In other words, the solution to the max f problem must *always* lie on the boundary x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1.

RGV
 
Ray Vickson said:
Look at f(x,y,z). For x , y and z >= 0, all its factors are >= 0, so f >= 0. Since you can have f = 0 (for example, by taking x=0 or y=0, etc.) the minimum value is f = 0. The gradient of f need not be zero at these minimizing points. Now consider the case f(x0,y0,z0) > 0 (so x0 > 0, y0 > 0 and z0 < -1). If x0^2 + y0^2 + z0^2 < 1 we can set x = c*x0, y = c*y0 and z = z0 to get f(cx0,cy0,z0) = c^2*f(x0,y0,z0) > f(x0,y0,z0) if c > 1. Increase c until we have c^2(x0^2 + y0^2) + z0^2 = 1, and the resulting point (x,y,z) will have a larger f-value than (x0,y0,z0). In other words, the solution to the max f problem must *always* lie on the boundary x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1.

RGV

I think I understand, but how does that help us find the point at which maximum occurs?
My problem is, I don't know how to analyze the border when the border is a surface.

jbunniii said:
To do it in cartesian coordinates, try substituting z = \sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2} into the formula for f and maximizing with respect to x and y.

Your spherical coordinate formula is right, but you didn't maximize it correctly.

I tried substituting for z = \sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2} but that makes it kinda complicated, is there no faster/easier way?

When you say maximizing with respect to x and y, do you mean setting the gradient of f(x, y, h(x, y)) to 0? where h(x, y) = \sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2}.
 
Substitution and then setting gradient to 0 got me (x, y) = (+- 1, +- 1) for which z = sqrt(-1)...
 
Inertigratus said:
I think I understand, but how does that help us find the point at which maximum occurs?
My problem is, I don't know how to analyze the border when the border is a surface.

For the surface, I would use a Lagrange multiplier method: you want to maximize f(x,y,z)= xy(z+ 1) subject to the condition that g(x,y,z)= x^2+ y^2+ z^2= 1
That will happen the two gradient vectors are parallel- when \nabla f= \lambda \nabla g for some constant \lambda.
 
Inertigratus said:
I think I understand, but how does that help us find the point at which maximum occurs?
My problem is, I don't know how to analyze the border when the border is a surface.



I tried substituting for z = \sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2} but that makes it kinda complicated, is there no faster/easier way?

When you say maximizing with respect to x and y, do you mean setting the gradient of f(x, y, h(x, y)) to 0? where h(x, y) = \sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2}.

Yes, exactly, since you are not yet "allowed" to use Lagrange multipliers.

RGV
 
Inertigratus said:
Substitution and then setting gradient to 0 got me (x, y) = (+- 1, +- 1) for which z = sqrt(-1)...

What is your expression for the gradient?

For

g(x,y) = f(x,y,\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}) = xy(\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2} + 1)

I get

\frac{\partial g}{\partial x} = y\left(\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2} + 1 - \frac{x^2}{\sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2}}\right)

and a similar expression for \partial g/\partial y:

\frac{\partial g}{\partial y} = x\left(\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2} + 1 - \frac{y^2}{\sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2}}\right)

If (x,y) is a critical point, and x and y are nonzero, then the expressions in parentheses must be zero.

I'll let you fill in the details. After a bit of manipulation, you can show that x^2 = y^2, and then substituting this into each equation yields one equation that depends only on x, and another that depends only on y. I ended up getting (x,y) = (\pm 2/3, \pm 2/3).
 
Last edited:
jbunniii said:
What is your expression for the gradient?

For

g(x,y) = f(x,y,\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2}) = xy(\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2} + 1)

I get

\frac{\partial g}{\partial x} = y\left(\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2} + 1 - \frac{x^2}{\sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2}}\right)

and a similar expression for \partial g/\partial y:

\frac{\partial g}{\partial y} = x\left(\sqrt{1-x^2-y^2} + 1 - \frac{y^2}{\sqrt{1 - x^2 - y^2}}\right)

If (x,y) is a critical point, and x and y are nonzero, then the expressions in parentheses must be zero.

I'll let you fill in the details. After a bit of manipulation, you can show that x^2 = y^2, and then substituting this into each equation yields one equation that depends only on x, and another that depends only on y. I ended up getting (x,y) = (\pm 2/3, \pm 2/3).
Oh, yes I got that too... but I think I forgot the " + 1" on the partial derivatives, which changed it all.

Ray Vickson said:
Yes, exactly, since you are not yet "allowed" to use Lagrange multipliers.

RGV

HallsofIvy said:
For the surface, I would use a Lagrange multiplier method: you want to maximize f(x,y,z)= xy(z+ 1) subject to the condition that g(x,y,z)= x^2+ y^2+ z^2= 1
That will happen the two gradient vectors are parallel- when \nabla f= \lambda \nabla g for some constant \lambda.

Right..., I tried the Lagrange multiplier and got that the right answer. Was just going to write how I did it, because I did something wrong at first and got something else. It's crazy how many mistakes I do sometimes...

Thanks all, now I understand it better!

I just hope I won't be keep making these "minor" mistakes on the exam...
 

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