Orthogonal functions with respect to a weight

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The discussion centers on the concept of orthogonal functions f and g, which are continuous on the interval [a,b] and orthogonal with respect to the weight function 1, meaning their integral product equals zero. Participants express confusion over the term "vanish," questioning whether it implies that either function must equal zero at some point within the interval (a,b). Examples provided include f(x) = x and g(x) = x^2, as well as f(x) = cos(2x) and g(x) = sin(2x), illustrating the difficulty in understanding how these functions can "vanish." Clarification suggests that "vanish" refers to the existence of at least one point in (a,b) where either f(x) = 0 or g(x) = 0, rather than requiring the functions to be identically zero. The conversation highlights the need for a precise understanding of terms in mathematical proofs.
muzihc
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Homework Statement


Say functions f and g continuous on [a,b] and happen to be orthogonal with respect to the weight function 1. Show that f or g has to vanish within (a,b).

Homework Equations


f and g are orthogonal w.r.t. a weight function w(x) if
the integral from [a,b] of f(x)g(x)w(x)dx = 0.
(in this case w(x) = 1)

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure what vanish means.
E.g. f(x) = x, g(x) = x^2 on some symmetric interval, say [-1,1] satisfies this, but I'm not sure how either function vanishes.

A more extreme example would be f(x) = cos(2x), g(x) = sin(2x), on say [-Pi,Pi]. How does either function
vanish? I'm not sure what that means, so I can't even begin a proof.
 
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muzihc said:

Homework Statement


Say functions f and g continuous on [a,b] and happen to be orthogonal with respect to the weight function 1. Show that f or g has to vanish within (a,b).

Homework Equations


f and g are orthogonal w.r.t. a weight function w(x) if
the integral from [a,b] of f(x)g(x)w(x)dx = 0.
(in this case w(x) = 1)

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure what vanish means.
E.g. f(x) = x, g(x) = x^2 on some symmetric interval, say [-1,1] satisfies this, but I'm not sure how either function vanishes.

A more extreme example would be f(x) = cos(2x), g(x) = sin(2x), on say [-Pi,Pi]. How does either function
vanish? I'm not sure what that means, so I can't even begin a proof.

I think they just mean there is a value of x in (a,b) such that either f(x)=0 or g(x)=0. They certainly can't mean vanish identically.
 
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Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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