Orthogonal theoretical question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a theoretical question in linear algebra concerning inner product spaces and the properties of subspaces. The original poster seeks to prove the existence of a non-zero vector in one subspace that is orthogonal to another subspace, given that the dimensions of the two subspaces differ.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the dimensions of the subspaces and the concept of orthogonal complements. Some express confusion about the relationship between the subspaces and the conditions under which vectors can be orthogonal.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants questioning the assumptions about the subspaces and the validity of certain mathematical statements. Some guidance has been offered regarding the properties of inner product spaces and projections, but there is no consensus on the interpretation of the dimensions and their implications.

Contextual Notes

There is uncertainty regarding the independence of the subspaces and whether all vectors of one subspace exist in the other. The original poster has noted that the problem is theoretical and that they cannot construct projections, which adds to the complexity of the discussion.

transgalactic
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V is a space of inner muliplication.
W1 and W2 are two subspaces of V, so dimW1<dimW2
prove that there is a vector
[tex] 0\neq v\epsilon W_2[/tex]
which is orthogonal to W1
??
 
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i got this solution:
dim W1=k
dim W2=n

[tex]n-k=W_2^\perp[/tex]
i can't see why its correcti don't know that all the vectors of W1 exist in W2 too
??
 
Last edited:
Since dim(W1)<dim(W2) you can find a nonzero vector v in W2 which is not an element of W1. Use the orthogonal projection onto W1 to construct, from v, a vector which is orthogonal to W1.
 
its a theoretical question i can't construct projections
the only way is if this "
dim W1=k
dim W2=n

[tex]n-k=W_2^\perp[/tex]
"

if all the vectors of W1 exist in W2
which wasnt gisnt given that
??
 
transgalactic said:
its a theoretical question i can't construct projections

What I am trying to tell you is this: If V is an inner product space and W is subspace, then any vector can be written as a sum v=w+n where w is in W and n is in the orthogonal complement of W. In fact, w is the projection of v to W. So, assuming that v is not an element of W, then n will be nonzero and orthogonal to W.
Usings these facts you will be able to solve the problem.

the only way is if this "
dim W1=k
dim W2=n

[tex]n-k=W_2^\perp[/tex]
"

if all the vectors of W1 exist in W2
which wasnt gisnt given that
??

You do not need W1 to be a subspace of W2.
 
whats
"V is an inner product space "
??
 
Last edited:
i am trying to imagine what you are telling
but its so abstract
??
 
suppose we have a four dimensional space
W={(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0)}
W complement is ={(0,0,1,0),(0,0,0,1)}
w is subspace of W
n is subspace of W complement
v could be written as w+n
but for that W and W complement must be independent to one another

we haven't been told that
we have been told that
dim W2>dim W1

so there could a case were W2 has all the vectors of W1 and there is another subspace

so not every vector could be written as a manipulation of W2 and W1
??
 
transgalactic said:
whats
"V is an inner product space "
??

A http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inner_product_space" , I am assuming this is what you mean by "a space of inner multiplication".

transgalactic said:
suppose we have a four dimensional space
W={(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0)}
W complement is ={(0,0,1,0),(0,0,0,1)}
w is subspace of W
n is subspace of W complement
v could be written as w+n
but for that W and W complement must be independent to one another

we haven't been told that
we have been told that
dim W2>dim W1

so there could a case were W2 has all the vectors of W1 and there is another subspace

so not every vector could be written as a manipulation of W2 and W1
??

I am not sure what you mean here, I will try to explain it differently.

What you are given: [tex]W_1[/tex], [tex]W_2[/tex] are subspaces of [tex]V[/tex] with [tex]\dim(W_1)<\dim(W_2)[/tex].
Let's put [tex]n=\dim(V)[/tex], [tex]n_1=\dim(W_1)[/tex], [tex]n_2=\dim(W_2)[/tex].

So [tex]\dim(W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2)\ge (n-n_1)+n_2-n\ge 1[/tex].

But this means that there are nonzero vectors in [tex]W_2[/tex] which are orthogonal to [tex]W_1[/tex].

I hope you can fill in the details, specifically, why the inequality I wrote is true.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #10
i can't understanf how did you constract this equation
[tex] \dim(W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2)\ge (n-n_1)+n_2-n\ge 1[/tex]
if[tex](W_1^{\perp}=n-n_1[/tex] and [tex]n_2=dim(W2)[/tex]
so the intersect is subtraction of the two groups
it should be
[tex]W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2=n-n_1-n_2[/tex]

and why
you add =>1
??
 
  • #11
transgalactic said:
i can't understanf how did you constract this equation
[tex] \dim(W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2)\ge (n-n_1)+n_2-n\ge 1[/tex]

I am using the following formula: If A,B are subspaces of V then

[tex]\dim(A+B)+\dim(A\cap B)=\dim(A)+\dim(B)[/tex]

and

[tex]\dim(A+B)\le\dim(V)[/tex]

if[tex](W_1^{\perp}=n-n_1[/tex] and [tex]n_2=dim(W2)[/tex]
so the intersect is subtraction of the two groups
it should be
[tex]W_1^{\perp}\cap W_2=n-n_1-n_2[/tex]

and why
you add =>1
??

If dim(V)>0 then V contains nonzero vectors.


A general comment: A message board is not the best way to learn linear algebra. You need someone you can talk to face to face, a teacher or other students. If you are stuck on a specific problem, then the people here can give you hints, but this only works if you already know most of what you should know to solve a particular exercise.
 

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