Orthogonal vector spaces and matrices

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the orthogonality of vector spaces defined by matrices A (m*n) and B (m*p), specifically addressing the condition L(A) is orthogonal to L(B) if and only if A'B=0. Participants clarify that A' refers to the transpose of A (A^T) or its conjugate transpose (A^H) in complex fields. The conversation emphasizes that each element of A'B represents the inner product of columns from A and B, reinforcing that if A'B=0, then all inner products must be zero, confirming orthogonality. Suggestions are made to express the (i,j)'th element of A'B to further illustrate the proof.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of linear algebra concepts, specifically vector spaces and orthogonality.
  • Familiarity with matrix operations, including transposition and inner products.
  • Knowledge of the properties of spans and bases in vector spaces.
  • Experience with mathematical notation and proofs in the context of linear transformations.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of orthogonal projections in vector spaces.
  • Learn about the Gram-Schmidt process for orthogonalization of vectors.
  • Explore the implications of the Rank-Nullity Theorem in relation to orthogonal spaces.
  • Investigate applications of orthogonal matrices in numerical methods and data analysis.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of linear algebra, and anyone involved in theoretical computer science or data science who seeks to deepen their understanding of vector spaces and orthogonality in matrices.

julie94
Messages
18
Reaction score
0
Hi everyone,

I would need to get some help on the following question

Let A (m*n)
Let B (m*p)

Let L(A) be the span of the columns of A.
L(A) is orthogonal to L(B) <=> A'B=0

I suppose that the => direction is pretty obvious, since A is in L(A)
and B in is L(B).

Now I am not sure how to attack the <= statement. I guess that every
vector in L(A) is generated by the rows of A, and every vector in L(B)
is generated by the columns of B.
Therefore A'B=0, means Sum(i, j, constant_i*row_i of
A*constant_j*row_j of B).

How can I improve my argument?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
julie94 said:
Hi everyone,

I would need to get some help on the following question

Let A (m*n)
Let B (m*p)

Let L(A) be the span of the columns of A.
L(A) is orthogonal to L(B) <=> A'B=0

I suppose that the => direction is pretty obvious, since A is in L(A)
and B in is L(B).

Not exactly. Each column of A is in L(A), and each column of B is in L(B).

I assume by A' you mean [itex]A^T[/itex], the transpose of A, or if you're working over the complex field, it would have to be [itex]A^H[/itex], the conjugate transpose of A. If so, then each element of A'B is formed by computing the inner product between one column of A and one column of B. By the orthogonality assumption, each inner product is 0, and therefore so is A'B.

Now I am not sure how to attack the <= statement. I guess that every
vector in L(A) is generated by the rows of A, and every vector in L(B)
is generated by the columns of B.
Therefore A'B=0, means Sum(i, j, constant_i*row_i of
A*constant_j*row_j of B).

How can I improve my argument?

That's the right idea, though you mean "every vector in L(A) is generated by the columns of A", or "every vector in L(A) is generated by the rows of (A')".

I suggest writing down an expression for the (i,j)'th element of A'B and setting it equal to zero. This will show that any column of A is orthogonal to any column of B. You then need to show that this implies that any element of L(A) is orthogonal to any element of L(B). (Hint: by definition, the columns of A are a basis for L(A), and similarly for B.)
 

Similar threads

Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K