P(x=mean) of normal PDF with low sigma - not allowed?

  • Thread starter Thread starter nomadreid
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Normal Pdf Sigma
nomadreid
Gold Member
Messages
1,748
Reaction score
243
P(x=mean) of normal PDF with low sigma -- not allowed?

About the normal probability distribution: with formula
P(X=x) = (1/(σ*sqrt(2π))*exp(-(x-μ)2/2σ2), what happens when you look at P(X=μ) if σ<(1/sqrt(2π))? You get P(X=μ)>1, an absurdity. What is going on?

Second question is one about intuition: suppose μ=0, then why would a scale change of the horizontal axis (say by changing units from meters to kilometers) , which would also change σ, affect the probability of the mean, which it would by the formula?
 
Physics news on Phys.org


the probability is 0 since what you looked at is a probability density p(X in x,x+dx) equals f(x)dx, where f is your gaussian function
 


For any continuous PDF, the probability that x is equal to any specific value, rather than in a given interval or set, is 0.
 


Thanks, jk22 and HallsofIvy. My reaction upon reading your replies and thinking for a couple of seconds was, "Of course. Stupid of me." So thanks for that destruction of the mental block.
 


What you can calculate is
P(X \le \mu) = \int_{-\infty}^{\mu} p(x) \, dx
where p(x) the PDF. Of course, this will give you 1/2 independent of the mean or standard deviation.
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top