Parseval's Theorem and Fourier series

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around Parseval's Theorem and its application to Fourier series, specifically focusing on the conditions under which a function is considered well-defined and square integrable. The original poster seeks to understand how to demonstrate these properties for a given Fourier series.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants inquire about the specific form of the Fourier series and discuss the implications of orthogonality of Fourier basis functions. There is also a mention of the Riesz-Fischer theorem as a potential means to establish square integrability.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants exploring different aspects of the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of the Riesz-Fischer theorem, but no consensus has been reached on the original poster's question about demonstrating square integrability.

Contextual Notes

The original poster notes a correction regarding the variables in the Fourier series and references external material for further context on Parseval's Theorem.

Niles
Messages
1,834
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Hi all.

Please take a look at the lowest equation in this picture:

http://img143.imageshack.us/img143/744/picture2ao8.png

This is Parselvals Identity.

Let us say that I am given a Fourier series of f(x), and I want to calculate the integral of f(x)^2 from -L to L. In order to do this, I use Parsevals Identity. But the requirement for me to use Parsevals Identity is that the series is well-defined and square integrable. How do I show this?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
What is the series?
 
It is given by:

<br /> f(x) = 1 + \sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {\left( {\frac{{\cos nx}}{{3^n }} + \frac{{\sin nx}}{n}} \right)} <br />
 
Do you mean f(x) = 1 + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos(\pi nx/L)}{3^n} + \frac{\sin(\pi nx/L)}{n}?

In any case, it doesn't matter that much. The way to solve this is to recall that the set of Fourier basis functions are orthogonal; doing out the integral multiplying all terms, it's not hard to show that, for a Fourier series with coefficients a_0,a_n,b_n,n=1,\dots,\infty
||f(x)||^2 = L|a_0|^2 + L/2\sum_{n=1}^\infty |a_n|^2 + |b_n|^2.
 
In my first post, the L's are supposed to be switched with pi's.

How can I show that f(x) is a well-defnied, square integrable function on [-pi; pi] so that I am allowed to use Parsevals Identity?

EDIT: See here

http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/LyapunovEquation.html

- under "Parseval's Theorem".
 
Last edited by a moderator:
The Riesz-Fischer theorem should give you the proof.
 
Hmm, ok.. I will try and look into it. Thanks
 
Sorry, I didn't have much time to post last time. The Riesz-Fischer theorem essentially says (among other things) that, given a_0,a_n,b_n,n=1,\dots,\infty, if |a_0|^2 + \sum_{i=1}^\infty |a_n|^2 + |b_n|^2 &lt; \infty, then there must exist a function f such that a_0,a_n,b_n are its Fourier coefficients, and this is its L2 norm. Since you have a function with those coefficients already, square integrability should follow.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
5K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K