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[SOLVED] partial derivatives
Can the partial derivative of a function depend depend on the form it is in?
Say, z = f(x,y), and y=g(x,w). If I take
\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}
then I get
\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y}
which is not necessarily 0. But \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} is also equal to
\frac{\partial f(x,g(x,w))}{\partial y}
which is identically 0. This is DRIVING ME OUT OF MY MIND.
Also, say we have z = f(x,y) = x^2+y^2+y and we also know that x=y. Then z also equals g(x,y) = x^2+y^2+x.
Thus, we get
2 y +1 = \frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial g(x,y)}{\partial y} = 2y
which is absurd. What is wrong with my logic?
All of these examples come from thermodynamics.
Homework Statement
Can the partial derivative of a function depend depend on the form it is in?
Say, z = f(x,y), and y=g(x,w). If I take
\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}
then I get
\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y}
which is not necessarily 0. But \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} is also equal to
\frac{\partial f(x,g(x,w))}{\partial y}
which is identically 0. This is DRIVING ME OUT OF MY MIND.
Also, say we have z = f(x,y) = x^2+y^2+y and we also know that x=y. Then z also equals g(x,y) = x^2+y^2+x.
Thus, we get
2 y +1 = \frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial g(x,y)}{\partial y} = 2y
which is absurd. What is wrong with my logic?
All of these examples come from thermodynamics.
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
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