Particle/Anti-Particle question

  • Thread starter Thread starter mgiddy911
  • Start date Start date
mgiddy911
Messages
331
Reaction score
0
Can a particle say an electron, be entangled with its antt-particle partner, a positron?
So could this happen for any particle antiparticle pair? I know that entanglement is often talked abut pertaining to photons, so could a photon and anti-photon be entangled?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
There is no distinction between photons and antiphotons, i.e. they are they same.
 
Yes, you certainly can entangle a particle/anti-particle pair. I don't know if this has ever been done with electrons (and, as mathman said, it's not a relevant question for photons), but take a look at the description of the BaBar and Belle experiments. Their measurements depend on entangling pairs of B^0/ \bar B^0 mesons. It's a very cool example of something that was once a novel result (EPR correlations, i.e. enganglement) becoming a tool for measureing something else (in this case, CP violation).
 
How do you keep the particle/antiparticle from annihilating before entanglement? How could they be entangled after annihlation, the annihilation products could be different for each particle?
 
Thanks for the information, the reason for me asking in the first place was similar to the last poster's question about anihilation. If the entangled pair were to anihilate after entanglement would anything be different from a normal anihilation?
Sorry about my spelling
 
Nothing prevents them from annihilating. In fact, the way you entangle them in the first place is by producing them in pairs from collisions or decays of other particles (sort of reverse annihilation), and they then fly apart. If you like, that's what keeping them from annihilating, the fact that they are produced with high velocities traveling in opposite directions.
 
Thread 'Why is there such a difference between the total cross-section data? (simulation vs. experiment)'
Well, I'm simulating a neutron-proton scattering phase shift. The equation that I solve numerically is the Phase function method and is $$ \frac{d}{dr}[\delta_{i+1}] = \frac{2\mu}{\hbar^2}\frac{V(r)}{k^2}\sin(kr + \delta_i)$$ ##\delta_i## is the phase shift for triplet and singlet state, ##\mu## is the reduced mass for neutron-proton, ##k=\sqrt{2\mu E_{cm}/\hbar^2}## is the wave number and ##V(r)## is the potential of interaction like Yukawa, Wood-Saxon, Square well potential, etc. I first...
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...
Back
Top