Phase difference in standing wave

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Gajan1234
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Can someone explain why the phase difference is zero when the there is equal number of nodes between the two vibrating particles.

Thank you
 
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You may need to reformulate. Between two particles can be some number of nodes. What would mean for this number to be "equal"?
Equality is a binary operator. Equal to what? Between two particles there is one number of nodes, not two.
 
The phase changes by Π (180 degree) when you pass one node. You can see this if you imagine (or draw) a snapshot of the wave. On one side of the node all the points go up and on the other side they all go down.
 
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