- #1
Alfred Cann
- 82
- 4
I think I understand this only up to a point.
1. Photon spin is quantized to be +1 or -1 and these represent left- and right-hand circular polarization.
2. A photon can have a superposition of 2 spin states in any proportion.
3. Having probability amplitude of 0.5 of spin 1 and 0.5 of spin -1 yields linear polarization, and the orientation depends on the phase angle between the two.
4. Here is my question:
Suppose I let a photon with vertical linear polarization (obtained from a vertical linear polarizer) pass through another vertical linear polarizer. What is the transmission probability?
Classical reasoning says 1.0.
But if the photon can REALLY have only spin 1 or -1, the transmission probability is only 0.5 in either case and therefore 0.5 overall.
I suspect the problem is with the word 'really' because we are not allowed to ask about objective reality. But please explain and, if possible, without ket signs or matrices.
1. Photon spin is quantized to be +1 or -1 and these represent left- and right-hand circular polarization.
2. A photon can have a superposition of 2 spin states in any proportion.
3. Having probability amplitude of 0.5 of spin 1 and 0.5 of spin -1 yields linear polarization, and the orientation depends on the phase angle between the two.
4. Here is my question:
Suppose I let a photon with vertical linear polarization (obtained from a vertical linear polarizer) pass through another vertical linear polarizer. What is the transmission probability?
Classical reasoning says 1.0.
But if the photon can REALLY have only spin 1 or -1, the transmission probability is only 0.5 in either case and therefore 0.5 overall.
I suspect the problem is with the word 'really' because we are not allowed to ask about objective reality. But please explain and, if possible, without ket signs or matrices.