Pproving (g ° f)* = f* ° g* - is this correct?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the relationship between the duals of linear maps, specifically whether \((g \circ f)^* = f^* \circ g^*\) holds true. The context involves linear maps and their properties, particularly in relation to dual spaces.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the properties of linear maps and their duals, questioning the meaning of the notation used in the problem. There is discussion about the implications of assuming certain relationships between the maps and the definitions of dual spaces.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, raising questions about the definitions and the setup provided in the assignment. Some have expressed confusion regarding the notation and the expectations of the proof, while others have begun to clarify their understanding of dual spaces and linear maps.

Contextual Notes

There is uncertainty regarding the definition of the notation '*', which is crucial for the problem. Participants note that the assignment lacks clarity on the definitions of the functions involved, leading to varied interpretations and approaches to the proof.

Emspak
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pproving (g ° f)* = f* ° g* -- is this correct?

Homework Statement



assume g: F→G is a linear map

prove that (g ° f)* = f* ° g*

My solution

(g ° f)* = g* ° f* by the properties of associativity in linear maps.

if we assume that g* ° f* = f* ° g* then g and f are inverse functions of each other.

by the properties of linear maps the only way that g* ° f* = f* ° g* is if they are inverse functions.

therefore (g ° f)* = f* ° g*

is there anything wildly wrong with my reasoning?
 
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Emspak said:

Homework Statement



assume g: F→G is a linear map

prove that (g ° f)* = f* ° g*

My solution

(g ° f)* = g* ° f* by the properties of associativity in linear maps.

if we assume that g* ° f* = f* ° g* then g and f are inverse functions of each other.

by the properties of linear maps the only way that g* ° f* = f* ° g* is if they are inverse functions.

therefore (g ° f)* = f* ° g*

is there anything wildly wrong with my reasoning?

Certainly looks wildly wrong to me. Is '*' supposed to be a transpose or adjoint or what?
 
i honestly don't know if you don't, i am writing the problem exactly as it appeared on the assignment.
 
Emspak said:
i honestly don't know if you don't, i am writing the problem exactly as it appeared on the assignment.

I don't have the rest of your course to look at. If they asked you to prove this then they certainly should have told you what '*' means. Look back. You'll need to use the definition.
 
I got two definitions: one is "any value" as it appears in some summation problems, the other is a map from G the dual space. Which one should be there I would have no way of figuring out since I am not the math PhD. My prof seems to think we are telepathic.
 
Emspak said:
I got two definitions: one is "any value" as it appears in some summation problems, the other is a map from G the dual space. Which one should be there I would have no way of figuring out since I am not the math PhD. My prof seems to think we are telepathic.

I don't either. It is a sloppy statement, I'll give you that. They said g:F->G but they didn't say anything about f. My mind reading says it's about dual spaces. It's basically the same as showing ##(AB)^T=B^TA^T## where T means transpose.
 
Well that helps, at least it tells me that I am approaching this the wrong way. I really wish there was a better method of teaching this stuff; we're using the Freidberg text but I don't find it all that helpful because (of course) my prof decides he wants to use a different notation. I tried using Linear Algebra Done Right but the people who wrote it have never heard of an index. I'm on a third text now hoping it will help.
 
Emspak said:
Well that helps, at least it tells me that I am approaching this the wrong way. I really wish there was a better method of teaching this stuff; we're using the Freidberg text but I don't find it all that helpful because (of course) my prof decides he wants to use a different notation. I tried using Linear Algebra Done Right but the people who wrote it have never heard of an index. I'm on a third text now hoping it will help.

Try thinking of it in terms of matrix representation. If the matrix representation of g is G and the matrix representation of f is F, then matrix representation of (g ° f) is GF. Now try to figure out what '*' does to matrices. It's really a form of 'transpose'.
 
Dick --
OK, I went to the prof. He says "the *" is defined in the problem which was about as helpful as a bullet to the brain, which is what I am contemplating right about now.

Here's the whole assignment problem:

Let f: E --> F be a linear map. Let f* : HomK(F,K) --> HomK(E,K) denote the function such that f*(u) = u composed of f (I'm too tired right now to mess with itex).

first he wants us to prove f* is a linear map. then the question I gave you.

Frankly the way this is set up might as well be written in Madarin as far as I am concerned.
 
  • #10
Emspak said:
Dick --
OK, I went to the prof. He says "the *" is defined in the problem which was about as helpful as a bullet to the brain, which is what I am contemplating right about now.

Here's the whole assignment problem:

Let f: E --> F be a linear map. Let f* : HomK(F,K) --> HomK(E,K) denote the function such that f*(u) = u composed of f (I'm too tired right now to mess with itex).

first he wants us to prove f* is a linear map. then the question I gave you.

Frankly the way this is set up might as well be written in Madarin as far as I am concerned.

It makes a lot more sense when you state the whole problem. I would do that in the future. Your first job is to figure out what all the maps are. Then it won't seem like Mandarin. ##Hom_K(F,K)## is the dual space of ##F##. Do you know what that is? Can you describe it in simple words?
 
  • #11
i know that a homomorphism is by definition a linear map, or at least that is the definition I found online. (neither of the three books I used -- Freidberg, Linear Algebra Done Right -- deigns to define it, though Schaum's seems to and says it is the space of all linear transformations). But no, the concept of a dual space is completely foreign to me right now.
 
  • #12
Emspak said:
i know that a homomorphism is by definition a linear map, or at least that is the definition I found online. (neither of the three books I used -- Freidberg, Linear Algebra Done Right -- deigns to define it, though Schaum's seems to and says it is the space of all linear transformations). But no, the concept of a dual space is completely foreign to me right now.

Well, time to start learning that foreign concept. You just said what it is. F* (the dual space to F) is the set of all linear maps from F to K. In fancier language, ##F^*=Hom_K(F,K)##. That is a vector space, right? Do you see why? Now to first part of the exercise is to show f* defines a linear map from G* to F*. Try it.
 
  • #13
ye, thanks a lot, rethinking it helped quite a bit.
 
  • #14
Emspak said:
ye, thanks a lot, rethinking it helped quite a bit.

So the whole thing isn't that bad once you figure out what the parts are, right?
 
  • #15
yeah, I think I was just venting a bit too. I can't be the only one who feel the frustration.
 

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