It isn't a polynomial theorem, is it? It only appears that you're saying 'it' 'works' if f(x)=ax^n, and you still seem to believe that x^n-k^n=(x-k)^n, which is a major flaw in the argument. You could at least try rewriting it so that it makes more sense. What is f(x)? What is a_1? Is it that f(x)=a_1x^n? Usually a_1 would be the coefficient of x in f(x), but even that is a guess since we don't know what f(x) is. What is the relationship between L, a, and a_1? Who knows? It is very unclear what yo'ure even trying to prove, and what you're assuming. As written your statement applies to f(x)=x, a=0 and L=1, so you reallyu can't be saying that as x tends to zero that f(x), which is just x, tends to 1. So there must be some more restrictions, such as a is a root of f(x)-L, mustn't you? Or are you assuming that f(x) tends to L as x tends to a? Then if so what are you proving and what are you proving it about? It's just completely impossible to decide what you're doing. Indeed I've no idea what the statement of the 'polynomial theorem' is.
Try writing:
Theorem: STATEMENT OF THEOREM
Proof: STATEMENT OF PROOF OF SAID THEOREM
The best we can do is say, if f(x)= k(x-a)^n then we can prove from first principles that it tends to zero as x tends to a since, given e>0 let d=(e/k)^{1/n} then |f(x)|<e when |x|<d, but that is truly not a very hard theorem, is it?