Probability function being imaginary?

Ananthan9470
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Suppose ψ1 and ψ2 are two eigenfunctions of a particle and ε1 and ε2 are the corresponding eigenvalues. If the state is in the superposition Ψ = αψ1 + βψ2 at time t=0, it evolves in time by the equation Ψ = αψ1ei ħ/ε1 t + βψ2ei ħ/ε2 t. I am trying to understand the probability amplitude Ψ*Ψ.If you take Ψ* and multiply with Ψ in the cross terms of ψ1 and ψ2 there will be the exponential part containing the imaginary component i. How is this possible? Shouldnt the probability function, being the square of the wave function always be real so that we have measurable quantity associated with the wave function? If the probability function stops being real, what does that mean in the real world? Thanks!
 
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There will be two cross terms one of which is the complex conjugate of the other, if you add them the imaginary part will vanish.
 
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blue_leaf77 said:
There will be two cross terms one of which is the complex conjugate of the other, if you add them the imaginary part will vanish.
Thanks a lot! Makes sense!
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!

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