Problem with expected value (Random Walk)

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on understanding the random walk problem as presented in Feynman's lectures, specifically the derivation of the equation DN² = N. The random walk involves taking steps forward or backward, leading to a total distance DN after N steps. The key to the derivation lies in the properties of independent random variables, where the variance of the sum equals the sum of the variances. It is established that the variance of each step is 1, which leads to the conclusion that the variance of the total distance is N. This foundational concept in probability clarifies the relationship between the expected distance traveled and the number of steps taken.
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Homework Statement


Hello, I was reading Feynman's lectures on physics, and I'm having trouble following some deductions in the part about Probability. The random walk is a problem in which someone starts at x = 0 ant then takes a step forward (x = 1) or backward (x = -1) and after N steps de distance traveled is DN. I'll atach the images regarding the problem because it's kind of large.

I don't really understand how does he get to the part

DN2 = N

How is that?

Homework Equations


They are all on the images.


The Attempt at a Solution



I'm thinking about <DN-12> = N - 1, but I don't know why would that be.

I'm sorry if this doesn't go here or if my post is a little hard to read. Thanks in advance.
 

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{ imp } said:

Homework Statement


Hello, I was reading Feynman's lectures on physics, and I'm having trouble following some deductions in the part about Probability. The random walk is a problem in which someone starts at x = 0 ant then takes a step forward (x = 1) or backward (x = -1) and after N steps de distance traveled is DN. I'll atach the images regarding the problem because it's kind of large.

I don't really understand how does he get to the part

DN2 = N

How is that?

Homework Equations


They are all on the images.


The Attempt at a Solution



I'm thinking about <DN-12> = N - 1, but I don't know why would that be.

I'm sorry if this doesn't go here or if my post is a little hard to read. Thanks in advance.

If you know some elementary probability theory it is easy. We have D = d1 + d2 + ... + dN, where di = distance moved in step i (di = -1 or +1 with probability 1/2 each). The random variables d1, d2, ... are _independent_. There is a basic theorem in probability that says Variance(sum) = sum(Variance), provided that the terms are independent. Thus, Var(D) = N*Var(d1), and Var(d1) = E(d1 - m1)^2, where m1 = E(d1) = mean of d1. Since m1 = 0 we have Var(d1) = E(d1^2) = (1/2)*(-1)^2 + (1/2)*(1^2) = 1. (Here, E = standard probabilistic notation for "expectation" = "mean"; you might prefer to use < > instead; that is, EX = <X>.)

RGV
 
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