Problem with Integral question

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The integral \(\int^{\pi /2}_{0}x^2 \cos^2 x \, dx\) evaluates to \(\frac{\pi^3}{48} - \frac{\pi}{8}\). This result can be utilized to compute the integral \(\int^{\pi / 2}_{- \pi /2} u^2 \cos^2 u \, du\) by recognizing that the integrand is even. Therefore, the latter integral is simply twice the value of the former integral, yielding \(\int^{\pi / 2}_{- \pi /2} u^2 \cos^2 u \, du = 2\left(\frac{\pi^3}{48} - \frac{\pi}{8}\right)\).

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If I know that [tex]\int^{\pi /2}_{0}x^2 cos^2 x dx = \frac{\pi^3}{48} - \frac{pi}{8}[/tex] can I use this to calculate [tex]\int^{\pi / 2}_{- \pi /2} u^2 cos^2 u du[/tex]?
 
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Obviously, since the integrand is even, the latter integral is just twice the first.
 

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