Artusartos
- 236
- 0
pasmith said:Your proof doesn't work: at one point you conclude that [itex]U(f^2,P) - L(f^2,P) = 0[/itex] which is not generally the case: consider f(x) = x on [a,b].
Artusartos said:Thanks, but if [tex]U(f^2,P) \leq B^2(b-a)[/tex] and [tex]L(f^2,P) \geq B^2(b-a)[/tex] then why aren't they equal?