Proof by contradiction for simple inequality

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on proving the inequality -1 ≤ (1-a)/a ≤ 1 under the condition that a is approximately 1. The user attempts a proof by contradiction, concluding that if (1-a)/a > 1, then a must be less than 1/2, which contradicts the assumption that a is close to 1. Concerns are raised about the vagueness of "approximately equal to" and whether a could still be considered close to 1 if it were less than 1/2. A clearer definition is suggested, stating that "a ≈ 1" means there exists an epsilon such that |a - 1| < epsilon, reinforcing that a < 1/2 is indeed inconsistent with a being approximately 1. The conversation concludes with an affirmation that the proof is sound when clarified.
tomwilliam2
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Homework Statement


I'm trying to show that if ##a \approx 1##, then
$$-1 \leq \frac{1-a}{a} \leq 1$$

I've started off trying a contradiction, i.e. suppose
$$ \frac{|1-a|}{a} > 1$$

either i)
$$\frac{1-a}{a} < -1$$
then multiply by a and add a to show
$$1 < 0$$
which is clearly false,

or ii)
$$1 < \frac{1-a}{a}$$
Which by the same reckoning leads me to
$$a < \frac{1}{2}$$

Which seems inconsistent with the original statement that ##a \approx 1##.
It's hardly a rock solid proof though, is it?
Is there a better way of doing this?
Thanks
 
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Yes, it is inconsistent! This is a proof by contradiction, remember? Your result that a< 1/2 contradicts the fact that a is close to 1.
 
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Thanks HallsofIvy. So you think that is enough to prove the original statement then?
The reason I thought it was a bit wooly, was that ##a \approx 1## is unclear regarding exactly how close to 1 it is!
Also, given that my final conclusion limits ##a## to less than 1/2, I'm unclear as to why they chose 1 as the bound in the original question. They could have chosen a range of other numbers (i.e ##-0.5 < (1-a)/a < 0.5##) and normally these things work out neater.
But if you think it's a sound proof, that's all that counts.
Thanks
 
No, your conclusion is NOT that a is less than 1/2! Your conclusion is that assuming that (1- a)/a> 1 leads to "a< 1/2" which contradicts the given fact that "a\approx. 1".
 
Sorry, I didn't make myself clear:
Yes, I am concluding that assuming (1-a)/a > 1 leads to a < 1/2. But my problem is with the second point. Does that necessarily contradict the fact that ##a \approx 1##? That doesn't seem mathematically rigorous to me (although I'm only a beginner). Imagine, for example, that ##a## was a measure of the distance on a galactic scale...something like a=1/4 would be fairly close to 1, on that scale wouldn't it? Doesn't the "approximately equal to" have some more precise definition?
Thanks
 
You can make it more precise by defining "If ##a \approx 1## then X" to mean "There is an ##\epsilon > 0## such that X for all ##a## satisfying ##|a - 1| < \epsilon##."

Then ##a < 1/2## contradicts ##a \approx 1## because for any candidate ##\epsilon##, you can find a value ##a## such that ##1/2 < a < 1## for which ##|a - 1| < \epsilon## but not ##a < 1/2##.
 
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Thanks CompuChip, that tidies it up nicely.
 
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