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Can anyone help me proving this:

http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/3730/provei.jpg [Broken]

And just for curiosity, is there a proof for why is the Laplace operator is defined as the divergence (∇·) of the gradient (∇ƒ)?

And why it doesn't work on vetorial function.

Thanks in advance, guys!

Igor.

http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/3730/provei.jpg [Broken]

And just for curiosity, is there a proof for why is the Laplace operator is defined as the divergence (∇·) of the gradient (∇ƒ)?

And why it doesn't work on vetorial function.

Thanks in advance, guys!

Igor.

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