Hey. I'm looking for a proof of:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Theorem: If [itex]f \in C^1(\mathbb{T})[/itex], then the Fourier series converges to f uniformly (and hence also pointwise.)

I have looked around for it, googled, etc, but I only found proofs which used theorem they did not prove. (Or I misunderstood what they said.)

I'd really like to truly understand why they converge, be it uniformly or pointwise. If anyone could either link me to a proof or do it, it'd be great. Thanks.

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# Proof Fourier Series Converge

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